Another extrapolation

Algebra Level 4

Let f , g : R R f,g: \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R} be two continuous functions.

What do the graphs f ( x ) g ( x ) \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} and f ( x ) g ( x ) f(x)-g(x) say about one another?

A: If f ( x ) g ( x ) = 0 f(x)-g(x) = 0 then f ( x ) g ( x ) = 1 \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1 .

B: If f ( x ) g ( x ) \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} is monotonically increasing on some interval, then f ( x ) g ( x ) f(x)-g(x) is positive on that interval.

C: None of the above.

A only A & B B only C

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1 solution

Jake Lai
May 23, 2015

A: It may be that f ( x ) = g ( x ) = 0 f(x) = g(x) = 0 and so f ( x ) g ( x ) \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} is undefined.

B: A quick counterexample is when f ( x ) = g ( x ) + x = 2 x + 1 f(x) = g(x)+x = 2x+1 .

Hence, only C is true.

For (A), you can also take f ( x ) = g ( x ) f(x)=g(x) as some function such that g ( x ) = 0 g(x^*)=0 for some x R x^*\in\Bbb R . There are infinitely many functions that does the job (for example, any polynomial function with real roots).


Take, for example, f ( x ) = g ( x ) = ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) ( x 3 ) f(x)=g(x)=(x-1)(x-2)(x-3) . This can act as a counter-example for both the claims. For (A), f ( x ) g ( x ) = 0 f(x)-g(x)=0 but f ( x ) g ( x ) \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} is undefined at all the roots, i.e., at x = 1 , 2 , 3 x=1,2,3 . Now, for (B), take any interval that doesn't contain the roots. f ( x ) g ( x ) = 1 \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=1 for those intervals and is hence monotonically increasing (constant function here). And we have f ( x ) g ( x ) = 0 ∉ R + f(x)-g(x)=0\not\in\Bbb{R^+}

Prasun Biswas - 6 years ago

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Nice! Good observations.

Jake Lai - 6 years ago

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