Another Perturbed Orbit

Classical Mechanics Level pending

Particle 1 1 has mass m 1 = 1000 m_1 = 1000 and Particle 2 2 has mass m 2 = 1 m_2 = 1 . They are both free to move in the x y xy plane under the influence of the gravitational force between them.

At time t = 0 t = 0 , the positions and velocities of particles are as follows:

( x 1 , y 1 ) = ( 0 , 0 ) ( x ˙ 1 , y ˙ 1 ) = ( 0 , 0 ) ( x 2 , y 2 ) = ( 1 , 0 ) ( x ˙ 2 , y ˙ 2 ) = ( 0 , 1000 ) (x_1, y_1) = (0,0) \\ (\dot{x}_1, \dot{y}_1) = (0,0) \\ (x_2, y_2) = (1,0) \\ (\dot{x}_2, \dot{y}_2) = (0,\sqrt{1000})

Note that if Particle 1 1 was fixed in place, Particle 2 2 would undergo uniform circular motion about the origin. Let r 2 max r_{2 \max} be the largest distance of Particle 2 2 from the origin between t = 0 t = 0 and t = 1 t = 1 .

What is ( r 2 max 1 ) (r_{ 2 \max} - 1) ?

Bonus: Make x y xy scatter plots of the trajectories of both particles

Details and Assumptions:
1) Universal gravitational constant G = 1 G = 1


The answer is 0.02465.

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1 solution

Karan Chatrath
Jan 19, 2021

Position of particle 1 at a general time is r 1 = ( x 1 , y 1 ) \vec{r}_1=(x_1,y_1) and velocity is v 1 = ( x ˙ 1 , y ˙ 1 ) \vec{v}_1=(\dot{x}_1,\dot{y}_1) . Position of particle 2 at a general time is r 2 = ( x 2 , y 2 ) \vec{r}_2=(x_2,y_2) and velocity is v 2 = ( x ˙ 2 , y ˙ 2 ) \vec{v}_2=(\dot{x}_2,\dot{y}_2) . Potential energy of the system is:

V = G m 1 m 2 ( 1 r 2 r 1 ) V = -Gm_1m_2\left(\frac{1}{\lvert \vec{r}_2-\vec{r}_1\rvert} \right)

The third term can be ignored as well as that is a constant. Kinetic energy of the system is:

T = m 1 2 ( x ˙ 1 2 + y ˙ 1 2 ) + m 2 2 ( x ˙ 2 2 + y ˙ 2 2 ) T = \frac{m_1}{2}\left(\dot{x}_1^2 + \dot{y}_1^2\right) + \frac{m_2}{2}\left(\dot{x}_2^2 + \dot{y}_2^2\right)

Applying Lagrangian mechanics:

x ¨ 1 = 1 m 1 V x 1 \ddot{x}_1 = -\frac{1}{m_1}\frac{\partial V}{\partial x_1} y ¨ 1 = 1 m 1 V y 1 \ddot{y}_1 = -\frac{1}{m_1}\frac{\partial V}{\partial y_1} x ¨ 2 = 1 m 2 V x 2 \ddot{x}_2 = -\frac{1}{m_2}\frac{\partial V}{\partial x_2} y ¨ 2 = 1 m 2 V y 2 \ddot{y}_2 = -\frac{1}{m_2}\frac{\partial V}{\partial y_2}

This system is solved numerically without explicitly crunching any derivatives, as demonstrated in the previous version of this problem of perturbed orbits.

The trajectory of the particle is:

The plot compared the trajectory if m 1 m_1 is fixed to the case where the orbit is perturbed. So, if the mass of m 1 > > m 2 m_1 >> m_2 the mass m 1 m_1 can be approximated to be fixed.

Stumbled upon this exercise:

https://brilliant.org/problems/what-happens-numerical-integration-problem-3-4-5/

Would like to know your thoughts about it.

Karan Chatrath - 4 months, 3 weeks ago

I tried that problem a long time ago and didn't get it right. Even with the problem I just posted, the numerical results were misbehaving a bit, so I was extra cautious.

Steven Chase - 4 months, 3 weeks ago

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