2 ⋅ n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( − 1 ) n ⋅ ( 2 n ) ! ( π / 5 ) 2 n = ?
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How did the Maclaurin Series get there?
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No, I meant how did you evaluate the Maclaurin series to 2cos(pi / 5)?
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By Maclaurin serise cos x = n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n ) ! ( − 1 ) n x 2 n . Putting x = 5 π .
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2 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n ) ! ( − 1 ) n ( 5 π ) 2 n = 2 cos ( 5 π ) Maclaurin series = 2 ( 4 1 + 5 ) = φ See Note
Note:
Using the identity:
cos ( 5 π ) + cos ( 5 3 π ) cos ( 5 π ) − cos ( 5 2 π ) cos ( 5 π ) − 2 cos 2 ( 5 π ) + 1 4 cos 2 ( 5 π ) − 2 cos ( 5 π ) − 1 ⇒ cos ( 5 π ) = 2 1 = 2 1 = 2 1 = 0 = 8 2 ± 4 + 1 6 = 4 1 + 5 cos ( 5 π ) > 0