It would be easier to generalize this problem

Calculus Level 5

Given that: 0 π 2 ln ( 246 8 2 cos 2 θ + 99 0 2 sin 2 θ ) d θ = π ln ( a ) \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln(2468^{2} \cos^2\theta+990^2 \sin^2\theta) \text{ }d\theta=\pi\,\ln(a)

Find the value of a a .

Note : ln \ln represents logarithmic function with base e e .

Try more integral problems here .


The answer is 1729.

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2 solutions

U Z
Nov 19, 2014

Lets do it in a generalised manner,

f ( y ) = 0 π / 2 l n ( y 2 c o s 2 x + s i n 2 x ) f(y) = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} ln( y^{2}cos^{2}x + sin^{2}x)

Here- 2468 990 = y , θ = x \frac{2468}{990} = y , \theta = x

f ( y ) = 2 y 0 π / 2 c o s 2 x s i n 2 x + y 2 c o s 2 x d x f'(y) = 2y \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{cos^{2}x}{sin^{2}x + y^{2}cos^{2}x}dx

= 2 y 0 π / 2 d x t a n 2 x + y 2 = 2y \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{dx}{tan^{2}x + y^{2}}

= 2 y 0 π / 2 s e c 2 x t a n 2 x t a n 2 x + y 2 d x = 2y \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{sec^{2}x - tan^{2}x }{tan^{2}x + y^{2}}dx

= 2 y . 1 y t a n 1 ( 1 y ) 0 2 y π 2 + y 2 f ( y ) = 2y . \frac{1}{y} tan^{-1}( \frac{1}{y}) |_{0}^{\infty} -2y\frac{\pi}{2} + y^{2}f'(y)

f ( y ) = π 1 + y f'(y) = \frac{\pi}{1 + y}

f ( y ) = π l n ( 1 + y ) + c f(y) = \pi ln(1 + y) + c

y = 1 , f ( 1 ) = 0 , c = π l n 2 y = 1 , f(1) = 0 , c = -\pi ln2

f ( y ) = π l o g ( 1 + y ) π l n 2 f(y) = \pi log(1 + y) -\pi ln2

I would gonna try 1729 in every question by @SandeepBhardwaj! 1729 everywhere!!!

Pranjal Jain - 6 years, 6 months ago

Nice ! @megh choksi

Karan Shekhawat - 6 years, 6 months ago
Aryan Goyat
Oct 15, 2016

https://brilliant.org/profile/sandeep-125d73/sets/integrals/188242/problem/ans-is-my-favourite-no/ very easy to guess the ans :p

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