Are you kidding me!

Number Theory Level 2

If f(x)= $1^{x}$ Then, value of f(x) will be

Cannot be determined Data inadequate None of these Indeterminable 1 0 Infinity I don't know the answer

1 solution

Narendra Patel
May 17, 2015

The answer is data inadequate because if x tends to infinity then it will become indeterminable . And otherwise it's value will be 1.

It is unclear what you mean. Maybe you've been taught the indeterminate form $1^{\infty}$ and try to apply it here. If so, you misunderstand what it means. What it says is that if $f(x)\to 1$ and $g(x)\to \infty$ , then we don't already know $\lim f(x)^{g(x)}$ just by this fact and we need more information. Limits are irrelevant to this problem. We have $1^x=1$ for any complex number $x$ . We also have $\lim_{x\to\infty}1^x=1$ .

mathh mathh - 6 years ago

Thanks. I have updated the answer accordingly.

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Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years ago

I think now the level of the question will decrease drastically

Aditya Chauhan - 6 years ago

Are you kidding me!

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