Here's a fun little integral I found a while back. Use your tricks wisely.
∫ − ∞ ∞ exp ( ℏ i p ( x − x 0 ) ) exp ( − p 0 ∣ p ∣ ) d p
SIMPLIFY AS MUCH AS POSSIBLE, you'll get it wrong if you don't
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gg no re well played
Isn't that The second option? Why is it wrong?
Ah, notice how I've said that you must take the conjugate, as if we do so we can eliminate the imaginary terms. In the problem I said "SIMPLIFY AS MUCH AS POSSIBLE" and the last conjugation is the hint to do that.
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We'll use the fact that ∫ − ∞ ∞ sin ( x ) d x = 0 and also e i x = cos ( x ) + i sin ( x )
First we see that the integrand composes of a imaginary part and a real part. However the imaginary part can be thought of as the sum of sine and cosine as shown earlier. Also, from the fact that the sin(x) is a odd function, the integral of the sin(x) term will go to zero thus, we can say that the integral becomes
R e [ ∫ − ∞ ∞ e x p ( ℏ i p ( x − x 0 ) ) e x p ( − p 0 ∣ p ∣ ) d p ]
Also the rest of the terms are even, thus leaving us with
2 R e [ ∫ 0 ∞ e x p ( ℏ i p ( x − x 0 ) ) e x p ( p 0 p ) d p ]
Next, is the integration, particular tricks are used here, just standard stuff
2 R e ⎣ ⎡ ( ℏ i ( x − x 0 ) ) 1 + p 0 1 ⎦ ⎤
Now that's disgusting, lets make it neater
2 R e [ i p 0 ( x − x 0 ) + ℏ p 0 ℏ ]
We're pretty much done, just take the conjugate, are there you go.