About Farey Sequences

For any positive integer n n , the Farey sequence F n F_n is the set of irreducible rational numbers a b \dfrac{a}{b} with 0 a b n 0\leq a\leq b\leq n and g c d ( a , b ) = 1 \mathrm{gcd}(a,b)=1 arranged in increasing order. The first three Farey sequences are: F 1 = { 0 1 , 1 1 } F 2 = { 0 1 , 1 2 , 1 1 } F 3 = { 0 1 , 1 3 , 1 2 , 2 3 , 1 1 } \begin{array}{lcl} F_1 & = & \displaystyle{\left\{\frac{0}{1},\frac{1}{1}\right \}} \\ F_2 & = & \displaystyle{\left\{\frac{0}{1},\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{1}\right \}} \\ F_3 & = & \displaystyle{\left\{\frac{0}{1},\frac{1}{3},\frac{1}{2},\frac{2}{3},\frac{1}{1}\right \}} \end{array}

Compute the maximum value of n n for which the number of terms of F n F_n does not exceed 500 500 .


The answer is 40.

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1 solution

Chew-Seong Cheong
Aug 30, 2016

The number of terms of Farey sequence F n F_n is given by ( see Eqn. (10) ):

N ( n ) = 1 + k = 1 n ϕ ( k ) N(n) = 1 + \sum_{k=1}^n \phi(k)

where ϕ ( ) \phi(\cdot) is the Euler's totient function .

It can be found that N ( 40 ) = 491 N(40) = 491 and N ( 41 ) = 531 N(41) = 531 , therefore the answer is 40 \boxed{40} .


Proof for N ( n ) N(n) :

Consider F n F_n for any n n ,

F n = { 0 1 , 1 1 ϕ ( 1 ) terms , 1 2 ϕ ( 2 ) terms , 1 3 , 2 3 ϕ ( 3 ) terms , 1 4 , 3 4 ϕ ( 4 ) terms , . . . a n 1 n , a n 2 n , a n 3 n , . . . a n ϕ ( n ) n ϕ ( n ) terms } \begin{aligned} F_n = \left \{\frac 01, \underbrace{\frac 11}_{\phi(1) \text{ terms}}, \underbrace{\frac 12}_{\phi(2) \text{ terms}}, \underbrace{\frac 13, \frac 23}_{\phi(3) \text{ terms}}, \underbrace{\frac 14, \frac 34}_{\phi(4) \text{ terms}}, ... \color{#3D99F6}{\underbrace{\frac {a_{n1}}n, \frac {a_{n2}}n, \frac {a_{n3}}n, ... \frac {a_{n \phi(n)}}n}_{\phi(n) \text{ terms}}} \right \} \end{aligned}

We note that other than 0 1 \frac 01 in the Farey sequence, all rational numbers with integer denominator k k must have coprime nominators a k j a_{kj} , therefore the number of rational numbers or terms with k k as denominator is Euler's totient function ϕ ( k ) \phi(k) . And we have:

N ( n ) = k = 1 n a k j k = 1 + k = 1 n ϕ ( k ) 1 is for 0 1 \begin{aligned} N(n) & = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac {a_{kj}}{k} = \color{#3D99F6}{1} + \sum_{k=1}^n \phi(k) \quad \blacksquare & \small \color{#3D99F6}{1 \text{ is for }\frac 01} \end{aligned}

Got a proof for (Eqn 10)?

Pi Han Goh - 4 years, 9 months ago

I did the same way but does there exist a shorter method to calculate sum of 1st n totients?

Kushagra Sahni - 4 years, 9 months ago

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I was also looking for it.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 4 years, 9 months ago

You can use the asymptotic behavior, F n 3 n 2 π 2 F_n\sim \frac{3n^2}{\pi^2}

Samrat Mukhopadhyay - 4 years, 9 months ago

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I did that but it only works for n n \to \infty .

Chew-Seong Cheong - 4 years, 9 months ago

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