A particle can move on an infinite two-dimensional plane, which is given an -coordinate system. As the particle moves on the plane, when it is at the point with coordinates , it experiences a resistance force equal to Newtons in a direction opposite to that of motion of the particle. Thus the work done moving the particle along a particular path is Joules, where represents the arc-length, measured in metres.
The particle has to be moved smoothly from the point to the point , in such a way that the -coordinate of its position never decreases. Thus a possible path from to is of the form , where is a smooth function such that and .
Of all the possible paths from to there is one for which the work done against the resistance force in moving the particle from to is as small as possible. The length of this path can be shown to be where are positive integers. What is the value of ?
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If y : [ 0 , 2 1 π ] → R is a smooth map such that y ( 0 ) = 0 and y ( 2 1 π ) = 1 , then the work done moving the particle along the path defined by the function y is W [ y ] = ∫ 0 2 1 π e − y ( x ) d s = ∫ 0 2 1 π e − y ( x ) 1 + ( y ′ ( x ) ) 2 d x The theory of Calculus of Variations tells us that the function y which extremizes W [ y ] must satisfy the Euler equation d x d ( ∂ y ′ ∂ F ) − ∂ y ∂ F = 0 where F ( x , y , y ′ ) = e − y 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 Thus d x d ( 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 y ′ e − y ) + e − y 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 ( y ′ ′ − ( y ′ ) 2 ) e − y − ( 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 ) 2 3 ( y ′ ) 2 y ′ ′ e − y + e − y 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 ( y ′ ′ − ( y ′ ) 2 ) ( 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 ) − ( y ′ ) 2 y ′ ′ + ( 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 ) 2 y ′ ′ + 1 + ( y ′ ) 2 = = = = 0 0 0 0 Putting z = e y , this equation becomes z ′ ′ + z = 0 and hence z = a sin x + b cos x for some constants a , b . Since y ( 0 ) = 0 and y ( 2 1 π ) = 1 we deduce that e y = z = e sin x + cos x , and so the optimal curve is y ( x ) = ln ( e sin x + cos x ) 0 ≤ x ≤ 2 1 π . For this curve we calculate ( d x d s ) 2 = 1 + ( d x d y ) 2 = ( e sin x + cos x ) 2 e 2 + 1 and hence that d x d s = e sin x + cos x e 2 + 1 = sec ( x − α ) where α = tan − 1 e .
Thus the length of the optimal curve is s = = = ∫ 0 2 1 π sec ( x − α ) d x = [ ln ( sec ( x − α ) + tan ( x − α ) ) ] 0 2 1 π ln ( c o s e c α + cot α ) − ln ( sec α − tan α ) = ln [ ( sec α + tan α ) ( c o s e c α + cot α ) ] ln ( e 1 + e + e 2 + ( 1 + e ) e 2 + 1 ) If we write s = 2 tanh − 1 v then v = tanh 2 1 s = e s + 1 e s − 1 = ( 1 + e ) 2 + ( 1 + e ) e 2 + 1 1 + e 2 + ( 1 + e ) e 2 + 1 = e + 1 e 2 + 1 so we deduce that s = 2 tanh − 1 ( e + 1 e 2 + 1 ) making the answer 2 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 7 .