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Great!
(1 + i)^2 = 2i
(1 + i)/(1 - i) = i
i^101 = i
The given expression = (2i)(i) = -2
Yes. Don't let the large numbers scare you. Great job!
Short and elegant!
( 1 − i ) 1 0 1 ( 1 + i ) 1 0 3 Evaluating the following : ( 1 + i ) 2 = 2 i ( 1 − i ) 2 = − 2 i Therefore, the following equation ( 1 − i ) 1 0 0 ( 1 − i ) ( 1 + i ) 1 0 0 ( 1 + i ) 3 simplifies to ( 1 − i ) ( 1 + i ) 3 ( 1 − i ) ( 1 + i ) 2 ( 1 + i ) Now, ( 1 − i ) ( 1 + i ) = i Therefore we get, ( 2 i ) ( i ) − 2
( 1 + i ) 2 = 2 i
1 − i 1 + i = i
( 1 − i ) 1 0 1 ( 1 + i ) 1 0 3 = ( 1 − i 1 + i ) 1 0 1 ( 1 + i ) 2 = i 1 0 1 × 2 i = − 2
Yes. Don't let the large numbers scare you. Great job!
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Elementary approach:
( 1 − i ) 1 0 1 ( 1 + i ) 1 0 3 = ( ( 1 − i ) ( 1 + i ) ) 1 0 1 ( 1 + i ) 1 0 3 ⋅ ( 1 + i ) 1 0 1 = ( 1 + 1 ) 1 0 1 ( ( 1 + i ) 2 ) 1 0 2 = 2 1 0 1 ( 2 i ) 1 0 2 = 2 ⋅ i 1 0 2 = 2 ⋅ ( − 1 ) 5 1 = ( − 2 )
Using Euler's Formula / De-Moivre's Theorem:
Expressing z = ( 1 + i ) in polar form gives z = r e i θ with r = 2 and θ = 4 π . Also, it gives us that ( 1 − i ) = z = r e − i θ
( 1 − i ) 1 0 1 ( 1 + i ) 1 0 3 = ( r e − i θ ) 1 0 1 ( r e i θ ) 1 0 3 = r 2 ⋅ e 2 0 4 i θ = ( 2 ) 2 ⋅ e 5 1 π i = 2 ( cos ( 5 1 π ) + i sin ( 5 1 π ) ) = 2 ( − 1 + 0 i ) = ( − 2 )