The diagram above shows both a unit circle and a circle-like shape S --slightly larger than the unit circle--defined by the equation 1 − ∣ x ∣ + 1 − ∣ y ∣ = 1 . What is the percentage by which the area of S is bigger than the area of the unit circle?
Give your answer to 3 decimal places.
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The larger region closely resembles a superellipse . If you are interested, you can read more about it there. :)
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It is not a superellipse, but gets very close indeed. This inspired a new problem .
This is strange, is there a reason why this curve looks so much like a circle?
By just looking at the first quadrant, the gradient at each point ( X , Y ) can be found (via implicit differentiation ) to be − Y X and − 1 − X 1 − Y for the circle and the non-circle, respectively. But I don't see how that helps....
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The non-circle runs through ( 0 , 1 ) , ( 1 , 0 ) , and ( 0 . 7 5 , 0 . 7 5 ) . The circle runs through ( 0 , 1 ) , ( 1 , 0 ) , and ( 2 1 , 2 1 ) ≈ ( 0 . 7 1 , 0 . 7 1 ) . That suggest some of the closeness.
Moreover, if we consider the polar representation r ( θ ) , we see that r = 1 for the circle, and r varies between 1 and 4 3 2 ≈ 1 . 0 6 1 . This shows how close the two are.
Conjecture. For the non-circle, r ( θ ) is strictly increasing on [ 0 ∘ , 4 5 ∘ ] , and strictly decreasing on [ 4 5 ∘ , 9 0 ∘ ] .
Here is a start of a possible proof: first, from implicit differentiation we have 1 − y d x + 1 − x d y = 0 . From x = r cos θ , y = r sin θ we find d x = r x d r − y d θ ; d y = r y d r + x d θ . Substitute these in the first equation to eliminate d x and d y : ( y 1 − x + x 1 − y ) r d r = ( y 1 − y − x 1 − x ) d θ . If only we can prove that, for points on the non-circle in the first quadrant, y 1 − y > x 1 − x iff 0 < y < x < 1 we have proof.that d r / d θ > 0 iff x < y .
1-|x|=sin⁴(t),1-|y|=cos⁴(t) |x|=1-sin⁴(t), |y|=1-cos⁴(t)
x²+y²=(1-sin⁴(t))²+(1-cos⁴(t))²= 2-2(sin⁴(t)+cos⁴(t))+ sin^8(t)+cos^8(t)= 2-2(1-2sin²(t)cos²(t))+ (1-2sin²(t)cos²(t))²-2sin⁴tcos⁴t= 1+2sin⁴tcos⁴t= 1+sin⁴(2t)/8 So1≤x²+y²≤9/8 so we see it is very near x²+y²=1
Ah parametrization! This is probably the last thing that I would be thinking when solving this problem! Very creative.
Note that you can (slightly) simplify your integral 4 ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − t 2 ) ( 1 − t 4 ) t d t by making the substitution u = t 2 .
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Let's focus on the part of the shape in the first quadrant. We find the area by integration. First express y in terms of x : y = 1 − ( 1 − 1 − x ) 2 = 2 1 − x − 1 + x . The area is ∫ 0 1 y d x = ∫ 0 1 ( 2 1 − x − 1 + x ) d x = [ − 3 4 ( 1 − x ) 3 / 2 − x + 2 1 x 2 ] 0 1 = 3 4 − 1 + 2 1 = 6 5 . This is one-quarter of the entire shape; the total area of shape S is therefore A S = 4 × 6 5 = 3 3 1 . Compare this to the area of the unit circle, A U = π : A U A S = π 3 3 1 = 1 . 0 6 1 0 3 ⟹ 6 . 1 0 3 % .