A B = = 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 1 0 0 1 × 2 × ⋯ × 2 0 0
It's obvious that
B
÷
A
is an integer.
Is it also true that
B
÷
A
÷
A
is still an integer?
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Silly me, didn't think of this. Anyway, good one!
Same Approach Sir!
What is that in the brackets?
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Another way of writing ( 1 0 0 2 0 0 ) .
Getting to 200!/(100!)^2 is obvious. No clue what 200C100 means
Excellent answer!!
How can a prime number in (100,200) be divisible by another prime number in (1,100)
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It doesn't need to be for ( 1 0 0 2 0 0 ) to be an integer. Look for example at ( 3 6 ) . The prime number 5 in (4,6) is not divisible by any prime in (1,3), but
( 3 6 ) = 3 ! ∗ 3 ! 6 ! = 3 ∗ 2 ∗ 1 ∗ 3 ∗ 2 ∗ 1 6 ∗ 5 ∗ 4 ∗ 3 ∗ 2 ∗ 1 = 5 ∗ 4 = 2 0 .
Though standard to operate left to right, an operation which is not associative should come with parathesis to indicate the other. However, I sympathize with your plight because once you do, the problem becomes mostly trivial.
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Are you saying that we should actually use parenthesis in the expression " B ÷ A ÷ A "?
B/A/A = AB/A = B. The answer should be obvious because A/A - 1.
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B ÷ A ÷ A = ( B ÷ A ) ÷ A . It is not true that B ÷ A ÷ A = B ÷ ( A ÷ A ) .
Here's how to approach the problem without knowing about binomial coefficients.
Let
v
p
(
n
)
denote the largest power of
p
which divides
n
. This means that
p
v
p
(
n
)
∣
n
but
p
v
p
(
n
)
+
1
∣
n
.
Then, the problem reduces to showing that for all primes,
v
p
(
B
)
≥
2
v
p
(
A
)
.
Claim 1:
v
p
(
n
!
)
=
⌊
p
n
⌋
+
⌊
p
2
n
⌋
+
⌊
p
3
n
⌋
+
…
.
Claim 2:
⌊
x
+
y
⌋
≥
⌊
x
⌋
+
⌊
y
⌋
.
(Proof of the claims are left to the reader.) Using these claims, we obtain the desired inequality:
v p ( B ) = ⌊ p 2 0 0 ⌋ + ⌊ p 2 2 0 0 ⌋ + ⌊ p 3 2 0 0 ⌋ + … ≥ 2 ⌊ p 1 0 0 ⌋ + 2 ⌊ p 2 1 0 0 ⌋ + 2 ⌊ p 3 1 0 0 ⌋ + … = 2 v p ( A ) .
This got me thinking about generalizing the problem. That is,
Prove that ( k ⋅ A ) ! divides A ! k for any positive integer k .
and
Maximize the value of j for constant positive integer k such that ( k ⋅ A ) ! \divides A ! j .
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Yup, that can be proved using multinomial coefficients or by extending my method.
That's not A "Basic" solution, nor is this problem.
Here, A = 100!
B = 200!
So , B÷A=200!÷100!
(B÷A)÷A=200!÷[(100!)(100!)]
=200 C 100
It's necessarily integer.
That's pretty neat, how have I not thought of this!
so good! well done!
A B = 1 0 0 ! 2 0 0 ! = 101 x 102 x 103 x 104 ... x 197 x 198 x 199 x 200 A = 1 x 2 x ... x 100, the largest value in A, 100, cancels out with the the largest value in A B , so that means logically all the values in A can cancel out with the values in A B as the the values being multiplied are simply incremented by one i.e. 2 can easily cancel out with any of the even numbers, 3 can easily cancel out with any of the multiples of three ... 99 can easily cancel out with 198 as that is 99 x 2 etc.
Well B/A = 1 x 2 x ...200/1 x 2 x ...100 which you can think of as evaluating to 101 x 102 x ...200. This is because all the factors from 1-100 in B and A cancel each other out. Now any number from 1-100 can be multiplied by another to get a number from 101-200. This means that 101 x 102 x ..200 contains all the factors from 1-100. So if you do 101 x 102 x ...200 / A - you'll get an integer.
Now any number from 1-100 can be multiplied by another to get a number from 101-200.
Intuitively, this is true. But can you prove that it's indeed true?
Breaking down the equation...
A = 100
B = 200
~ thus ~
A = 1
B = 2
So...
B ➗ A = 2 ➗1 = 2
And
B ➗ A ➗ A = 2 ➗ 1 ➗ 1 = 2
~ thus ~ it is true and B➗A➗A is still an integer
No, this is wrong.
A is not equal to 100, B is not equal to 200.
In fact, A is a 158-digit number, and B is a 375-digit number.
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B ÷ A ÷ A = A A B = A × A B = 1 0 0 ! × 1 0 0 ! 2 0 0 ! = ( 1 0 0 2 0 0 ) , which is necessarily an integer.