Binomial fun

Consider the binomial expansion:

( 1 + x ) n = C 0 + C 1 x + C 2 x 2 + C 3 x 3 + + C n x n . (1+x)^n = C_0 + C_1 x + C_2 x^2+ C_3x^3 + \cdots + C_n x^n.

Find the value of C 0 2 + C 1 2 + + C n 2 C_{0}^{2} + C_{1}^{2} + \cdots + C_{n}^{2} in terms of n n .

( 2 n ) ! n ! \frac{(2n)!}{n!} 2 2 n 2^{2n} ( 2 n ) ! ( n ! ) 2 \frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2} 2 2 n 1 2^{2n-1}

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1 solution

Alan Guo
Nov 25, 2015

It is known that C i = ( n i ) C_{i} = \binom{n}{i} . (1)

(This is because if one one writes out the n n separate ( 1 + x ) (1+x) s, then the i i th term can be created by picking exactly i i x x 's, of which there are ( n i ) \binom{n}{i} ways of such choice.)

It is noteworthy that C i = ( n i ) = ( n n i ) = C n i C_{i} = \binom{n}{i} = \binom{n}{n-i} = C_{n-i} . (2)

( 1 + x ) 2 n = ( i = 0 n C i ) ( i = 0 n C i ) (1+x)^{2n} =( \sum_{i=0}^{n}C_{i})( \sum_{i=0}^{n}C_{i})

Therefore x n x^n is also formed by

i = 0 n C i x i C n i x n i \sum_{i=0}^{n} C_{i} x^i \cdot C_{n-i} x^{n-i}

= i = 0 n C i C n i x n =\sum_{i=0}^{n} C_{i}C_{n-i} x^n

= i = 0 n C i 2 x n =\sum_{i=0}^{n} C_{i}^2 x^n by (2)

By (1), the n n th term (i.e. the coefficient of x n x^n ) of ( 1 + x ) 2 n (1+x)^{2n} is ( 2 n n ) = 2 n ! ( n ! ) 2 \binom{2n}{n} = \frac{2n!}{(n!)^2}

QED.

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