Bizarre limit, neat answer

Calculus Level 5

lim x 0 + k = 1 cos ( k x ) k ln ( x ) = ? \lim_{x\to{0^+}}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(kx)}{k\ln(x)} = \ ?


The answer is -1.

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1 solution

Otto Bretscher
Oct 4, 2015

As Brian Charlesworth observed in his solution to an earlier problem , k = 1 e i k x k = ln ( 1 e i x ) \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{e^{ikx}}{k}=-\ln(1-e^{ix}) for 0 < x < π 0<x<\pi . Taking real parts and recalling that R e ( ln ( z ) ) = ln z Re(\ln(z))=\ln|z| , we find that k = 1 cos ( k x ) k = ln 1 e i x = ln ( 2 sin ( x / 2 ) ) \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(kx)}{k} =-\ln|1-e^{ix}|=-\ln\left(2\sin(x/2)\right) To prove the last equation geometrically, consider the triangle in the Argand plane with its vertices at 0, 1, and e i x . e^{ix}. Finally lim x 0 + k = 1 cos ( k x ) k ln ( x ) = lim x 0 + ln ( 2 sin ( x / 2 ) ) ln ( x ) = lim x 0 + ( x / 2 ) cos ( x / 2 ) sin ( x / 2 ) = 1 \lim_{x\to{0^+}}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos(kx)}{k\ln(x)} =-\lim_{x\to{0^+}}\frac{\ln(2\sin(x/2))}{\ln(x)}=-\lim_{x\to{0^+}}\frac{(x/2)\cos(x/2)}{\sin(x/2)}=-1 by Bernoulli's rule (often mistakenly referred to as L'Hôpital's rule).

Moderator note:

Great approach! Thanks for sharing these ideas of now to manipulate power series in interesting ways.

Nice! And I'll have to start referring to L'Hôpital's rule as Bernoulli's rule out of respect to its true founder. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 5 years, 8 months ago

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When I went to college back in Switzerland, they referred to it diplomatically as the "rule of Bernoulli-de L'Hôpital" ;)

It's a matter of mind over money, or vice versa.

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Sir, so what is the difference between Bernoulli's rule and L Hopital's rule??

Aaghaz Mahajan - 2 years, 2 months ago

Why do you set as the right hand limit only ( x 0 + x\to0^+ )? The left hand limit and the right hand limit equals to 1 -1 , no?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Sure, but let's keep it real ;)

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 8 months ago

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