Bouncing a lot

A ball of mass m m is moving between two parallel plates of mass much larger than m m , separated by distance L L . The ball moves with velocity v v in the direction perpendicular to the plates and collides with the plates multiple times. Due to the momentum transfer at the collisions, each plate experiences an average force of F F that is acting to push the plates apart.

Initially, the velocity of the ball is v 0 v_0 and the distance between the plates is L 0 L_0 . As the separation of the planes is slowly changed, the force is changing and it can be expressed as F = m v 0 2 L ( L 0 L ) A . F= \frac{m v_0^2}{ L} \left(\frac{L_0}{L}\right)^A. What is the value of A ? A?

Assume that the collision between the ball and the plates is perfectly elastic. Neglect the effect of gravity.


The answer is 2.

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4 solutions

Laszlo Mihaly
Sep 20, 2018

The momentum transfer at a collision is Δ p = 2 m v \Delta p=2mv . It takes a time of Δ t = 2 L / v \Delta t= 2L/v for the ball to return for the next collision. The force is F = Δ p / Δ t = m v 2 / L F=\Delta p /\Delta t= mv^2/L . We can rewrite this in terms of the kinetic energy of the ball, E = 1 2 m v 2 E=\frac{1}{2} mv^2 , as

F = 2 E L F= \frac {2E}{L}

We have to apply this external force in order to keep the distant L L steady. Changing the distance between the plates by d L dL requires work, d W = d L F dW=- dL F . Since there is no dissipation in the system this work will change the kinetic energy of the bouncing ball:

d E = d L F = 2 E L d L dE=- dL F= - \frac{2E}{L}dL

We can solve this differential equation by separation of variables:

d E E = 2 d L L log E / E 0 = 2 log L / L 0 E / E 0 = ( L / L 0 ) 2 \frac{dE}{E}=-2\frac{dL}{L} \qquad \rightarrow \qquad \log E/E_0 = - 2\log L/L_0 \qquad \rightarrow \qquad E/E_0=(L/L_0)^{-2}

Accordingly, the force can be expressed as

F = 2 E L = 2 E 0 L ( L 0 L ) 2 F= \frac {2E}{L}= \frac {2E_0}{L} \left(\frac{L_0}{L}\right)^{2}

In terms of the original parameters:

F = m v 0 2 L ( L 0 L ) 2 F= \frac {mv_0^2}{L} \left(\frac{L_0}{L}\right)^{2}

so the answer is A=2.0 .

Note that for a quantum mechanical "particle in a box" one gets an extremely similar result, see here , but the underlying physics is entirely different.

Since dE = -2 (E/L) dL Then it is dE/E = -2 dL/L And eventually A = 2

Or am I missing something ?

PS : Sorry for my lack of Latex skill

Antoine Diot - 2 years, 8 months ago

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I think you are right. I made a trivial mistake.

Laszlo Mihaly - 2 years, 8 months ago

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It happens :)

i am glad my own give the good answer then

Antoine Diot - 2 years, 8 months ago
Akshar Nerkar
Oct 6, 2018

I just l guessed the answer 2 and got it right at the first place itself...!! Then I'm eligible for writing my own solution that's it😅

I thought to it but I said "it won't as simple as that"

Arthur PONS - 2 years, 8 months ago

Try that in jee

Amar Shukla - 2 years, 7 months ago
K T
Oct 5, 2018

The ball, moving at speed v v between the plates at separation L L , bounces with each of the plates v 2 L \frac{v}{2L} times per second. At each bounce, a momentum of 2 m v 2mv is transferred. The average force is momentum per time, so the force on the each of the plates is F = 2 m v v 2 L = m v 2 L F= \frac{2mv}{\frac{v}{2L}}=\frac{mv^2}{L} , pressing outward.

If we bring the plates a bit closer together by an external force, we put an amount of work d E = F d L = m v 2 d L L dE=-FdL= -mv^2 \frac{dL}{L} into the system. The kinetic energy of the system is 1 2 m v 2 \frac{1}{2}mv^2 , so that we can describe the process just in terms of energy and separation: d E E = 2 d L L \frac{dE}{E} = -2\frac{dL}{L} .

Integrating both sides gives the relation l n ( E ) = 2 l n ( L ) + C ln(E) = -2 ln(L)+C . Exponentiate to find E = k / L 2 E = k/L^2 where k = e C k=e^C . Now find k by plugging in the original values v 0 v_0 and L 0 L_0 : k = 1 2 L 0 2 m v 0 k = \frac{1}{2}L0^2mv_0 so that E = 1 2 m v 0 2 L 0 2 L 2 E =\frac{1}{2} mv_0^2 \frac{L_0^2}{L^2} .

Lastly F = d E / d L = m v 0 2 L 0 2 L 3 = m v 0 2 L ( L 0 L ) 2 F=-dE/dL = mv_0^2\frac{L0^2}{L^3} = \frac{mv_0^2}{L}(\frac{ L0}{L})^2

So that the asked A equals 2.00

Cy D
Oct 6, 2018

My English is not very good.

This is a one-dimensional adiabatic process,and the adiabatic process equation is p V γ = c o n s t pV^{γ}=const .

We know that γ = C p C V = 0.5 + 1 0.5 = 3 γ=\frac{C_{p}}{C_{V}}=\frac{0.5+1}{0.5}=3 ,so the equation will be F L 3 = c o n s t FL^{3}=const .(according to the theorem of equipartition of energy)

so the answer is A = 3 1 = 2 A=3-1=2 .

PS:This is not a very rigorous solution,but it is always correct.

why Cp=.5+1? and Cv=5?

Md Rahman - 2 years, 7 months ago

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According to the theorem of equipartition of energy,Cv=0.5R (one-dimensional),andCp=Cv+R. (You can learn thermodynamics)

cy d - 2 years, 6 months ago

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