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There is no such real number that satisfies the condition.
Why it’s impossible in reals?
Most people will fall into the trap:
3 x + 3 x 1 = 1
3 2 x + 1 = 3 x
3 2 x − 3 x = − 1
Oops! Dead end.
Let A = 3 x .
A 2 − A + 1 = 0
2 ⋅ 1 − 1 ± 1 2 − 4 ⋅ 1 ⋅ 1 = 0
2 − 1 ± − 3 = 0
− 1 ± i 3 = 0
:-P Got fooled.
True, it doesn't have as a real solution. But the imaginary solution can be analytically found as:
3 x = 2 1 ± 3 i
Reexpressing R.H.S in polar notation:
3 x = e i 3 π
And changing L.H.S basis to e :
3 x = e ln 3 x = e x ln 3
Then:
x = i 3 ln ( 3 ) π