Find number of positive integral solutions of
a ! + b ! + c ! = 2 d ! .
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Do you mean positive integral solutions? Because I can show you 12 with integral, 9 of them including 0. Like a,b,c being 0,0,2 will have 3 combinations. Being 1,1,2 will have 3 combinations as well. Being 1,0,2 will have 6 combinations. And d will be 2 in each case. So answer should be 12 if integral solutions are to be considered.
Yes, 1 2 is the correct answer. He probably forgot about 0 or forgot to mention that a , b , c , d are positive or in specific order.
@Kushagra Sahni , @Jesse Nieminen - i forgot to write positive integral solutions.
@Calvin Lin , sir i have changed the question. Now please mark the report as resolved.
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Priyanshu please post the KVS JMO Paper.
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I got selected in JMO 2016.
Type K V S J M O 2 0 1 6 in search in NOTES.
You have still to prove that a ! + b ! + c ! = 2 d ! doesn't have any integral solution if d > 2 . which is really the problem...
You is correct but you not read that That is "POSITIVE integral solution
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Did you read these comments? If you did, you should know that it was added afterwards.
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We have ( 1 , 1 , 2 , 2 ) , ( 1 , 2 , 1 , 2 ) and ( 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 ) as solutions.
Let's prove that these are the only solutions.
Case 1, at least one of a , b , c is 1 :
If only one of a , b , c is 1 or all of them are 1 then LHS is odd and RHS is even which is impossible.
If two of a , b , c are 1 , e.g. b and c , we have
a ! + 2 = 2 d ! ⟹ 2 a ! + 1 = 2 d ! − 1 ⟹ a = 2 , which gives us the given solutions, when we permutate the values of a , b , c .
( a = 2 because 2 a ! + 1 > 1 , so it must be even, and that forces a = 2 or a = 3 but only with a = 2 we have a solution because d ! − 1 = 2 has no solutions.)
There are no additional solutions in this case.
Case 2, a , b , c > 1 :
If a , b , c > 2 then LHS is divisible by 3 which is impossible since RHS is not.
Hence, at least one of a , b , c is 2 .
If two of them are 2 we have a ! + 4 = 2 d ! ⟹ 4 a ! + 1 = 2 d ! − 2 , this has no solutions since 4 a ! + 1 > 1 which means that it is even, but there exists no such a that 4 divides a ! but 8 does not.
If only one of them is 2 then a ! + b ! + 2 = 2 d ! ⟹ 2 a ! + 2 b ! + 1 = 2 d ! − 1 , which again means that 2 a ! + 2 b ! + 1 > 1 is even, which implies that either a or b is 3 . ( 2 is not allowed because we can only have one equal to 2 here.)
Now a ! + 8 = 2 d ! ⟹ 8 a ! + 1 = 2 d ! − 3 , which again means that 8 a ! + 1 > 1 is even so, a can be either 4 or 5 , which yields, 3 2 = 2 d ! ⟹ d ! = 5 , which has no solutions and 1 2 8 = 2 d ! ⟹ d ! = 7 which has no solutions.
Hence, there are no solutions in this case.
Hence, the only solutions are the solutions given in the beginning, which means that the number solutions is 3 .