What is the remainder when
i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! i
is divided by 1 0 1 ?
This problem is posed by Budi U .
Details and assumptions
You may use the fact that 101 is prime.
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how do u find a=100 from -1! = a(mod101) ? sorry i havent been taught about this mod thingy so i dont really understand
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From Euclid's division algorithm for positive integers a , b 0 ≤ r < b so we deduce a = 1 0 0 . Menwhile you can look upon this for an introduction to modular arithmetic.
i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! i
= i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! ( ( i + 1 ) − 1 )
= i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) i ! − i !
= i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) ! − i !
= 1 0 2 ! − 1 0 1 ! + 1 0 1 ! − 1 0 0 ! + 1 0 0 ! − 9 9 ! . . . . . . + 2 ! − 1 !
= 1 0 2 ! − 1
1 0 2 × 1 0 1 × 1 0 0 × . . . × 2 × 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d 1 0 1 )
1 0 2 ! ≡ 0 ≡ 1 0 1 ( m o d 1 0 1 )
1 0 2 ! − 1 ≡ 1 0 1 − 1 ( m o d 1 0 1 )
1 0 2 ! − 1 ≡ 1 0 0 ( m o d 1 0 1 )
Hence, the answer is 100. #
We can arrange the given expression as
i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! ( i + 1 − 1 )
= i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) ! − i !
= − i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! − ( i + 1 ) !
Then we can observe an exciting sequence,
= − ( 1 ! − 2 ! + 2 ! − 3 ! + . . . + 1 0 1 ! − 1 0 2 ! )
= 1 0 2 ! − 1 !
It is obvious that 1 0 2 ! is divisible by 1 0 1 , then the remainder will be
− 1 m o d 1 0 1
= 1 0 0 m o d 1 0 1
Hence, the answer is 1 0 0 .
The idea of solving this problem :
In this typical problem with sigma notation, a good way to solve it is by Telescoping Method . We can try to express it as
k = 1 ∑ n f ( k ) − f ( k + 1 )
and we can get a surprising
f ( k ) − f ( n + 1 )
I hope some of the users can learn something from me! :)
i*i!=(i+1)!-i!
summing above to 101 terms will give sum as 102!-1
102! is divisible by 101
-1 mod 101 is 100
Thus remainder is 100
Note that i ! ⋅ i = i ! ⋅ ( i + 1 − 1 ) = i ! ⋅ ( i + 1 ) − i ! Once this is observed we see that the sum telescopes and we get the value of the summation as 1 0 2 ! − 1 ! from which we conclude that the remainder is 100.
Rewrite the given summation as:
i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! ⋅ i = i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 i ! ⋅ ( i + 1 − 1 ) = i = 1 ∑ 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) ! − i !
= 2 ! − 1 ! + 3 ! − 2 ! + 4 ! − 3 ! + . . . . . + 1 0 2 ! − 1 0 1 !
= 1 0 2 ! − 1
= 1 0 2 ! − 1 0 1 + 1 0 0
The first two terms are divisible by 101, hence 100 is the remainder.
Excuse me sir, Can you please explain how you rewrote the summation?
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Can you please explain which step you could not understand? Do you get it is completely ok to add and subtract 1? Or the next step?
you can simply see that ( i + 1 ) ! = ( i + 1 ) × i ! so we get ( i + 1 ) ! − i ! = i ! × i
We can prove by induction that 1! 1+2! 2+...+n!*n=(n+1)!-1, so the desired sum is 102!-1. Taking this mod 101, the factorial term is 0, leaving us with -1 which is congruent to 100 mod 101, so the answer is 100
or note that i ! i = ( i + 1 ) ! − i ! and use telescoping
The main relation is that n ⋅ n ! = ( n + 1 ) ! − n ! ( ⋆ ) which is easily proved by distributive law and definition of factorial: n ⋅ n ! = = = ( n + 1 − 1 ) ⋅ n ! ( n + 1 ) ⋅ n ! − 1 ⋅ n ! ( n + 1 ) ! − n ! Now, S : = ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 i ⋅ i ! = = = = = ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) ! − i ! ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) ! − ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 i ! ∑ i = 2 1 0 2 i ! − ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 i ! ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 i ! + 1 0 2 ! − 1 ! − ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 i ! 1 0 2 ! − 1 Since 1 0 1 ∣ 1 0 2 ! , we have S ≡ 1 0 2 ! − 1 ≡ − 1 ≡ 1 0 0 ( m o d 1 0 1 )
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Notice that i ⋅ i ! = ( i + 1 − 1 ) i ! = ( i + 1 ) ! − i ! which telescopes.
So we have ∑ i = 1 1 0 1 ( i + 1 ) ! − i ! = 1 0 2 ! − 1 !
Now, 1 0 2 ! = 1 0 2 ⋅ 1 0 1 ⋅ 1 0 0 ! which is divisible by 1 0 1 .
So 1 0 2 ! − 1 ! ≡ a ( m o d 1 0 1 )
⇒ − 1 ! ≡ a ( m o d 1 0 1 )
⇒ a = 1 0 0 which is the remainder we seek.