Budi's factorial sum

What is the remainder when

i = 1 101 i ! i \sum_{i=1}^{101} i! i

is divided by 101 101 ?

This problem is posed by Budi U .

Details and assumptions

You may use the fact that 101 is prime.


The answer is 100.

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8 solutions

Nishant Sharma
Oct 13, 2013

Notice that i i ! = ( i + 1 1 ) i ! = ( i + 1 ) ! i ! i\cdot\;i!\;=\big(i+1-1\big)i!\;=\big(i+1\big)!-i! which telescopes.

So we have i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) ! i ! = 102 ! 1 ! \sum_{i=1}^{101} \big(i+1)!-i!\;= 102!-1!

Now, 102 ! = 102 101 100 ! 102!\;=102\cdot101\cdot100! which is divisible by 101 101 .

So 102 ! 1 ! a ( m o d 101 ) 102!-1!\;\equiv\;a\big(mod101\big)

1 ! a ( m o d 101 ) \Rightarrow\;-1!\;\equiv\;a\big(mod101\big)

a = 100 \Rightarrow\;a\;=\boxed{100} which is the remainder we seek.

how do u find a=100 from -1! = a(mod101) ? sorry i havent been taught about this mod thingy so i dont really understand

Adrian Wong - 7 years, 8 months ago

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From Euclid's division algorithm for positive integers a , b a\;,\;b 0 0 \leq r < b r<b so we deduce a = 100 a\;=100 . Menwhile you can look upon this for an introduction to modular arithmetic.

Nishant Sharma - 7 years, 8 months ago
Tan Yee Jian
Oct 15, 2013

i = 1 101 i ! i \sum_{i=1}^{101}{i!i}

= i = 1 101 i ! ( ( i + 1 ) 1 ) \sum_{i=1}^{101}{i!((i+1)-1)}

= i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) i ! i ! \sum_{i=1}^{101}{ (i+1)i!-i! }

= i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) ! i ! \sum_{i=1}^{101}{(i+1)!-i!}

= 102 ! 101 ! + 101 ! 100 ! + 100 ! 99 ! . . . . . . + 2 ! 1 ! 102! - 101! + 101! - 100! +100! - 99! ...... +2! - 1!

= 102 ! 1 102! - 1

102 × 101 × 100 × . . . × 2 × 1 0 ( m o d 101 ) 102 \times 101 \times 100 \times ... \times 2 \times 1 \equiv 0 \pmod{101}

102 ! 0 101 ( m o d 101 ) 102! \equiv 0 \equiv 101 \pmod{101}

102 ! 1 101 1 ( m o d 101 ) 102! - 1 \equiv 101 -1 \pmod{101}

102 ! 1 100 ( m o d 101 ) 102! - 1 \equiv 100 \pmod{101}

Hence, the answer is 100. #

Christopher Boo
Mar 8, 2014

We can arrange the given expression as

i = 1 101 i ! ( i + 1 1 ) \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{101} i!(i+1-1)

= i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) ! i ! =\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{101} (i+1)!-i!

= i = 1 101 i ! ( i + 1 ) ! =-\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{101} i!-(i+1)!

Then we can observe an exciting sequence,

= ( 1 ! 2 ! + 2 ! 3 ! + . . . + 101 ! 102 ! ) =-(1!-2!+2!-3!+...+101!-102!)

= 102 ! 1 ! =102!-1!

It is obvious that 102 ! 102! is divisible by 101 101 , then the remainder will be

1 m o d 101 -1 \mod 101

= 100 m o d 101 =100 \mod 101

Hence, the answer is 100 100 .


The idea of solving this problem :

In this typical problem with sigma notation, a good way to solve it is by Telescoping Method . We can try to express it as

k = 1 n f ( k ) f ( k + 1 ) \displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^n f(k)-f(k+1)

and we can get a surprising

f ( k ) f ( n + 1 ) f(k)-f(n+1)

I hope some of the users can learn something from me! :)

Abhishek Rawat
Oct 14, 2013

i*i!=(i+1)!-i!
summing above to 101 terms will give sum as 102!-1 102! is divisible by 101
-1 mod 101 is 100
Thus remainder is 100


Chandrasekhar S
Jan 18, 2014

Note that i ! i = i ! ( i + 1 1 ) = i ! ( i + 1 ) i ! i! \cdot i = i! \cdot \bigl( i+1 - 1\bigr) = i! \cdot (i+1) - i! Once this is observed we see that the sum telescopes and we get the value of the summation as 102 ! 1 ! 102! - 1! from which we conclude that the remainder is 100.

Pranav Arora
Oct 14, 2013

Rewrite the given summation as:

i = 1 101 i ! i = i = 1 101 i ! ( i + 1 1 ) = i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) ! i ! \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{101} i! \cdot i=\sum_{i=1}^{101} i!\cdot(i+1-1)=\sum_{i=1}^{101} (i+1)!-i!

= 2 ! 1 ! + 3 ! 2 ! + 4 ! 3 ! + . . . . . + 102 ! 101 ! \displaystyle =2!-1!+3!-2!+4!-3!+.....+102!-101!

= 102 ! 1 \displaystyle = 102!-1

= 102 ! 101 + 100 \displaystyle =102!-101+100

The first two terms are divisible by 101, hence 100 is the remainder.

Excuse me sir, Can you please explain how you rewrote the summation?

Peter Bishop - 7 years, 8 months ago

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Can you please explain which step you could not understand? Do you get it is completely ok to add and subtract 1? Or the next step?

Pranav Arora - 7 years, 8 months ago

you can simply see that ( i + 1 ) ! = ( i + 1 ) × i ! (i+1)! = (i+1) \times i! so we get ( i + 1 ) ! i ! = i ! × i (i+1)! - i! = i! \times i

Deepansh Mathur - 7 years, 8 months ago
Vincent Huang
Oct 13, 2013

We can prove by induction that 1! 1+2! 2+...+n!*n=(n+1)!-1, so the desired sum is 102!-1. Taking this mod 101, the factorial term is 0, leaving us with -1 which is congruent to 100 mod 101, so the answer is 100

or note that i ! i = ( i + 1 ) ! i ! i!i= (i+1)!-i! and use telescoping

Daniel Wang - 7 years, 8 months ago
Riccardo Zanotto
Oct 14, 2013

The main relation is that n n ! = ( n + 1 ) ! n ! ( ) n\cdot n!=(n+1)!-n! \;\;\; (\star) which is easily proved by distributive law and definition of factorial: n n ! = ( n + 1 1 ) n ! = ( n + 1 ) n ! 1 n ! = ( n + 1 ) ! n ! \begin{array}{lll}n\cdot n!&=&(n+1-1)\cdot n!\\&=&(n+1)\cdot n!-1\cdot n!\\&=&(n+1)!-n!\end{array} Now, S : = i = 1 101 i i ! = i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) ! i ! = i = 1 101 ( i + 1 ) ! i = 1 101 i ! = i = 2 102 i ! i = 1 101 i ! = i = 1 101 i ! + 102 ! 1 ! i = 1 101 i ! = 102 ! 1 \displaystyle\begin{array}{lll}S:=\sum_{i=1}^{101}i\cdot i!&=&\sum_{i=1}^{101}(i+1)!-i! \\ &=& \sum_{i=1}^{101}(i+1)!-\sum_{i=1}^{101}i! \\ &=& \sum_{i=2}^{102}i!-\sum_{i=1}^{101}i! \\ &=& \sum_{i=1}^{101}i! +102!-1!-\sum_{i=1}^{101}i! \\ &=& 102!-1\end{array} Since 101 102 ! 101\mid 102! , we have S 102 ! 1 1 100 ( m o d 101 ) S\equiv 102!-1\equiv-1\equiv100\pmod{101}

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