Calculus 4 - by Vlad Vasilescu (W)

Calculus Level 4

Let f ( x ) = 1 1 + x f(x)=\dfrac{1}{1+x} and a n = k = 0 n ( 1 ) k k ! f ( k ) ( 1 ) \displaystyle a_{n}= \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{(-1)^k}{k!}f^{(k)}(1) , where f ( k ) ( x ) f^{(k)}(x) is the k t h k^{th} derivative of f ( x ) f(x) .

Find lim n a n \displaystyle \lim_{n\to \infty} a_{n} .

Limit doesn't exist k ! k! 0 0 1 e \frac{1}{e} e e 1 1 \infty

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2 solutions

Vlad Vasilescu
Nov 27, 2016

From the formula ( 1 x + a ) ( k ) = ( 1 ) k k ! ( x + a ) k + 1 (\frac{1}{x+a})^{(k)}=\frac{(-1)^kk!}{(x+a)^{k+1}} we get f ( k ) ( 1 ) = ( 1 ) k k ! 2 k + 1 f^{(k)}(1)=\frac{(-1)^kk!}{2^{k+1}} . Then , a n a_{n} will be k = 0 n \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^n 1 2 k + 1 = 1 2 ( 1 2 ) n 1 1 2 1 \frac{1}{2^{k+1}} = \frac{1}{2} \frac{(\frac{1}{2})^n - 1}{\frac{1}{2} -1 } . \Rightarrow l i m n lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a n a_{n} = 1 . \boxed{1} .

Chew-Seong Cheong
Nov 28, 2016

\(\begin{array} {} f^{(0)} (x) = f(x) = (1+x)^{-1} & = 0!(f(x))^1 \\ f^{(1)} (x) = (-1)(1+x)^{-2} & = -(1!)(f(x))^2 \\ f^{(2)} (x) = 2(1+x)^{-3} & = 2!(f(x))^3 \\ f^{(3)} (x) = (-6)(1+x)^{-4} & = -(3!)(f(x))^4 \\ ... & = \ ... \end{array} \)

f k ( x ) = ( 1 ) k k ! ( f ( x ) ) k + 1 \implies f^{k} (x) = (-1)^kk!(f(x))^{k+1}

Therefore, we have:

a n = k = 0 n ( 1 ) k k ! f ( k ) ( 1 ) = k = 0 n ( 1 ) k k ! ( 1 ) k k ! ( f ( 1 ) ) k + 1 = k = 0 n ( f ( 1 ) ) k + 1 = k = 0 n ( 1 2 ) k + 1 = 1 2 × 1 1 1 2 = 1 \begin{aligned} a_n & = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac {(-1)^k}{k!} f^{(k)}(1) \\ & = \sum_{k=0}^n \frac {(-1)^k}{k!} (-1)^kk!(f(1))^{k+1} \\ & = \sum_{k=0}^n (f(1))^{k+1} \\ & = \sum_{k=0}^n \left(\frac 12 \right)^{k+1} \\ & = \frac 12 \times \frac 1{1-\frac 12} \\ & = \boxed{1} \end{aligned}

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