Calculus an integral part of life

Calculus Level 4

If f k ( x ) = ( k 2 + k k ! ) x k f_k (x)= \left( \dfrac{k^2+k}{k!}\right)x^k , then find the value of 0 1 k = 0 f k ( x ) d x \displaystyle \int_{0}^{1}\sum_{k=0}^\infty f_k(x) \ dx .

5 4 6 1 3 5.2 2 None of them

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2 solutions

The functional series is uniformly convergent. So we can apply integration first and then do the summation. Then it becomes the infinite summation of k/k! . Which is nothing but e .

We know that i = 0 \displaystyle \sum_{i=0}^\infty x k k ! \frac{x^k}{k!} = e x e^x

Now, Multiplying by x on both sides and Differentiating twice with respect to x, we get

i = 0 \displaystyle \sum_{i=0}^\infty x k 1 k ! \frac{x^{k-1}}{k!} k(k+1)= e x e^x ( x + 2 ) (x+2)

Multiplying by x again gives us the required sum f k ( x ) f_k(x)

f k ( x ) f_k(x) = e x e^x x ( x + 2 ) x(x+2)

0 1 \int\limits_0^1 f k ( x ) f_k(x) d x dx = 0 1 \int\limits_0^1 e x e^x x ( x + 2 ) x(x+2) d x dx = e e

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