If f k ( x ) = ( k ! k 2 + k ) x k , then find the value of ∫ 0 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ f k ( x ) d x .
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We know that i = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! x k = e x
Now, Multiplying by x on both sides and Differentiating twice with respect to x, we get
i = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! x k − 1 k(k+1)= e x ( x + 2 )
Multiplying by x again gives us the required sum f k ( x )
f k ( x ) = e x x ( x + 2 )
0 ∫ 1 f k ( x ) d x = 0 ∫ 1 e x x ( x + 2 ) d x = e
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The functional series is uniformly convergent. So we can apply integration first and then do the summation. Then it becomes the infinite summation of k/k! . Which is nothing but e .