Can you generalize it?

Calculus Level 4

0 8 π max ( sin x , sin 1 ( sin x ) ) d x = ? \large \displaystyle \int_{0}^{8\pi} \max \left( \sin x, \sin^{-1} (\sin x) \right) \, dx= \, ?

π 2 2 \pi^2-2 4 ( π 2 8 ) 3 \frac{4 \left(\pi^2-8 \right)}{3} π 2 4 \pi^2-4 π 2 8 \pi^2-8

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1 solution

Akhil Bansal
Nov 30, 2015

Curve marked with light blue color(see image) shows the graph of given function and it repeat itself after 2 π 2\pi . Hence, its period is 2 π 2\pi .

I = 0 8 π max ( sin x , sin 1 ( sin x ) ) d x \large I= \displaystyle \int_{0}^{8\pi} \max \left( \sin x, \sin^{-1} (\sin x) \right) \, dx I = 4 [ 0 π sin 1 ( sin x ) d x + π 2 π sin x d x ] \large I =4\left[ \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin^{-1} (\sin x) \, dx + \displaystyle \int_{\pi}^{2\pi} \sin x \, dx\right] I = 4 [ 0 π 2 x + π 2 π ( π x ) d x + π 2 π sin x d x ] \large I = 4\left[\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} x + \displaystyle\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\pi} \left(\pi - x\right) \, dx + \displaystyle\int_{\pi}^{2\pi} \sin x \, dx \right] Now, its elementary integration after that, I = π 2 8 I = \pi^2 - 8

Moderator note:

Great! Very clear explanation indicating what the various regions are.

So the general formula for integrating it from 0 to n*pi = pi^2-n

Vijay Simha - 3 years, 8 months ago

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no, i guess the formula would be,

n π 2 8 n n\cdot \dfrac{\pi^{2}}{8}-n , if n n is even, and,

( n + 1 ) π 2 8 ( n 1 ) (n+1)\cdot \dfrac{\pi^{2}}{8}-(n-1) , if n n is odd.

Anirudh Sreekumar - 3 years, 8 months ago

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