1 ( 1 ! ) + 2 ( 2 ! ) + 3 ( 3 ! ) + ⋯ + n ( n ! ) = ( n + 1 ) ! − 1
Is the above true for all integers n ≥ 1 ?
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@Samuel Nascimento , I have changed the words of the question for you. You were asking if the member could prove it rather than if the equation is true. Someone else who knows that the equation is true may not be able to prove it. So is he or she going to answer "yes" or "no"?
For an arbitrary term k ( k ! ) , we can write it as: k ( k ! ) = ( k + 1 ) ( k ! ) − k ! = ( k + 1 ) ! − k ! This gives us a telescoping sum: 1 ( 1 ! ) + 2 ( 2 ! ) + 3 ( 3 ! ) + ⋯ + n ( n ! ) = ( 2 ! − 1 ! ) + ( 3 ! − 2 ! ) + ( 4 ! − 3 ! ) + ⋯ + ( ( n + 1 ) ! − n ! ) = − 1 ! + 2 ! − 2 ! + 3 ! − 3 ! + 4 ! + … − n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! = − 1 ! + ( n + 1 ) ! = ( n + 1 ) ! − 1
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Let S n = 1 ( 1 ! ) + 2 ( 2 ! ) + 3 ( 3 ! ) + ⋯ + n ( n ! ) , We can prove the claim that S n = ( n + 1 ) ! − 1 is true by induction .
First note that S n = 1 ( 1 ! ) = 1 = 2 ! − 1 . Therefore, the claim is true for n = 1 . Now, assuming that the claim is true for n , then
S n + 1 = S n + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) ! = ( n + 1 ) ! − 1 + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) ! = ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) ! − 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! − 1 = ( ( n + 1 ) + 1 ) ! − 1
The claim is also true for n + 1 , therefore it is true for all n ≥ 1 .