True or false :
Because both the limits, x → ∞ lim sin x and x → ∞ lim cos x does not exist, then the difference of their limits must be equal to 0:
x → ∞ lim ( sin x − cos x ) = 0 .
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Yup! For what it's worth: Mr Brian did the R method :
sin x − cos x = = = 2 ( 2 1 sin x − 2 1 cos x ) 2 ( sin x cos 4 π − sin 4 π cos x ) 2 sin ( x − 4 π )
The last step follows from the compound angle formula : sin ( A − B ) = sin A cos B − cos A sin B with A = x , B = 4 π .
The mistake in my working is "If two limits does not exist, their difference is not necessarily equal to 0, nor does it necessarily exists in the first place".
lim x → ∞ ( sin x − cos x ) = lim x → ∞ 2 sin ( x − 4 π ) = 2 lim x → ∞ sin x
Which is still undefinined. We can do the last step because the limit is to infinity.
While this solution is correct, the question considers the more general situation of
If the limits of two sequences does not exist (and hence are "equal" in description), must the limit of their difference be 0?
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First note that sin ( x ) − cos ( x ) = 2 ( 2 1 sin ( x ) − 2 1 cos ( x ) ) = 2 sin ( x − 4 π ) .
Now θ = x − 4 π → ∞ as x → ∞ , so
x → ∞ lim ( sin ( x ) − cos ( x ) ) = 2 × θ → ∞ lim sin ( θ ) ,
which as noted in the question does not exist. Hence the claim made is f a l s e .