Catch the Thief!

Two ships A A and B B are originally at a distance d d from each other depart at the same time from a straight coastline. Ship A A moves along a straight line perpendicular to the shore while ship B B constantly heads for ship A A , having at the each moment same as the latter. After a sufficiently great interval of time the second ship will be following the first one at a certain distance x x . Find x x in the image above.


Details and Assumptions

  • d = 26 d= 26 m

  • In final position they are in same straight line perpendicular to coastline ( track of A A )

  • Their speeds are the same.


The answer is 13.

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2 solutions

Deepanshu Gupta
Mar 20, 2015

Sorry I'am replying late , Since I was little Busy in my JEE prep. , and Gautam , thanks for adding Diagram ,It is easy, It is actually Similar Problem Like as dog-cat chase , but in that problem finally dog will catch the cat means x=0 , but here It is not possible Since Velocities are same , But okay For Solution to this problem , Let at time t=t : distance b/w ship-A and Ship-B as ' r r ' . Now Since their separation is changing
continuously . So we use relative velocity concept , Also Let Line Joining their separation and the Line of motion of ship -A (Vertical Line) has angle θ \theta b/w them.Also Let final time is t=T.

d r d t = v cos θ v d x d r = 0 T ( v cos θ v ) d t . . . . ( 1 ) \displaystyle{\cfrac { -dr }{ dt } =v\cos { \theta } -v\\ \int _{ d }^{ x }{ -dr } =\int _{ 0 }^{ T }{ (v\cos { \theta } -v)dt } .\quad .\quad .\quad .\quad (1)}

Now , Also difference b/w horizontal distance travelled by the two ships is equal to 'x' , So :

x 0 T v d t 0 T v cos θ d t . . . . ( 2 ) \displaystyle{x\equiv \int _{ 0 }^{ T }{ vdt } -\int _{ 0 }^{ T }{ v\cos { \theta dt } } \quad .\quad \quad .\quad .\quad .(2)}

using 1 and 2 we get ,

x = d 2 \boxed { x=\cfrac { d }{ 2 } }

Hopes this helps you!

Yeah thanks for the solution But how did you post solution even after reporting it?

Gautam Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago

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ohh , don't you know , now brilliant has Improved reporting feature . We can report , and then return back to question without if we don't want to see others report ! So I reported and then revert back to question !

You should read this exciting features info click here

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 2 months ago
Ayush Anand
Nov 23, 2017

This question can be solved using polar coordinates.

d r d t = v sin θ v \frac{dr}{dt}=v\sin\theta-v

and v cos θ = r d θ d t v\cos\theta=r\frac{d\theta}{dt}

Now dividing both the equations we get:-

d r r d θ = sin θ 1 cos θ \frac{dr}{rd\theta}=\frac{\sin\theta-1}{\cos\theta}

Integrating this expression: d r d r r = 0 π / 2 sin θ 1 c o s θ d θ \int_d^r{\frac{dr}{r}}=\int_0^{\pi/2}{\frac{\sin\theta-1}{cos\theta}}d\theta

We get ln r d = ln 2 \ln\frac{r}{d}=-\ln 2

hence answer is d/2

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