Let a , b , c and d be positive reals such that a + b + c + d = 1 . Find the minimum value of a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 .
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Yeah bro you did the best one
Great use of Cauchy–Bunyakovsky–Schwarz inequality....
Reached The same solution after a few days of thinking about this! So rewarding when I finally got it :)
The problem is a very easy application of AM-HM. We know that for the fout positive real numbers a , b , c , d , By AM-HM
4 a + b + c + d ≥ a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 4 .
This this is very simple that ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) ( a + b + c + d ) ≥ 1 6
But since, a + b + c + d = 1 , we get ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) ≥ 1 6 Therefore, the minimum value is 16
Easy one!!
Hi is there an easy way to do this problem?
Applying AM-HM is much easier than Cauchy-Schwarz and convenient in this case.......
Yeah there is no need of Cauchy Schwartz
Nice method
I have the same solution
WHERE'S THE EQUALITY CASE???????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????
a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 = ( a + b + c + d ) ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) ≥ Cauchy-Schwarz ( 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 ) 2 = 1 6 .
Since 1 6 can be reached when a 1 a = b 1 b = c 1 c = d 1 d ⟹ a 2 = b 2 = c 2 = d 2 ⟹ a , b , c , d > 0 a = b = c = d = 4 1 , the answer is 1 6 .
If a + b + c + d = 1 , then a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 = 1 ∗ ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) = ( a + b + c + d ) ∗ ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) But a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 = ( a 1 ) 2 + ( b 1 ) 2 + ( c 1 ) 2 + ( d 1 ) 2 and ( a + b + c + d ) = ( a ) 2 + ( b ) 2 + ( c ) 2 + ( d ) 2 So ( a + b + c + d ) ∗ ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) = ( ( a ) 2 + ( b ) 2 + ( c ) 2 + ( d ) 2 ) ∗ ( ( a 1 ) 2 + ( b 1 ) 2 + ( c 1 ) 2 + ( d 1 ) 2 ) By Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality,
≥ ( a ∗ a 1 + b ∗ b 1 + c ∗ c 1 + d ∗ d 1 ) 2 = ( 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 ) 2 = ( 4 ) 2 = 1 6
Wouldn't it be possible to skip the step of using the squareroots? Then you could imply that (a + b + c + d) (a^(-1) + b^(-1) + c^(-1) + d^(-1)) >= a a^(-1) + b b^(-1) + c c^(-1) + d d^(-1), which gives the same result if we consider the equality of these two equations.
simple...put a=b=c=d=1/4...So, 1/a+1/b+1/c+1/d=16
How did you come up with one-fourth? Please explain it thoroughly.
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to get the minimum value just assume a=b=c=d=t. Then according to a+b+c+d=1 , we get 4t=1 , hence t= 1/4. Thus a=b=c=d= 1/4. Similarly in coordinate geometry if such question comes on a triangle , just assume the triangle to be equilateral, that will help you to save time in competitive exams
According to Bunyakovsky inequality: a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 a + b + c + d ≥ ( 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 ) 2 = 4 2 = 1 6 ⇒ ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) ≥ 1 6 M I N ( ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) = 1 6 "=" happens when a=b=c=d=1/4
Please can you state bunyakovsky's inequality
We can get it by directly applying Titu's lemma
a + b + c + d = 1
According to Cauchy–Schwarz inequality:
( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) ( a + b + c + d ) ≥ ( a a + b b + c c + d d ) 2
Therefore:
a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ≥ 1 6
By Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, [ a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ] (a+b+c+d) ≥ { a / a + b / b + c / c + d / d } × { a / a + b / b + c / c + d / d } Which becomes a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ≥ 4 × 4 Therefore the minimum value is 16
I know of the obvious solution, but please point out where i am going wrong in this approach Using Holder's Inequality: [ a^-1 + b^-1 + c^-1 + d^-1 ] [ 1^-1 +1^-1 +1^-1 +1^-1 ] >= [ a+ b+ c+ d ]^-1 => Required >= 1/4
Easy one. a+b+c+d=1, this will be called eq(1), the minimun its obtained when all numbers are the same, then suppose a=b=c=d=k, replacing on eq(1) we have k=1/4. Then 1/a+1/b+1/c+1/d became 4*(1/1/4)=16.
(a+b+c+d) *((1/a +(1/b) +(1/c)+(1/d)) >_ (1 +1 +1 +1)^2 or 16 then we realize that the solution must be the same or 1/4
AM-GM also works easily. Applying it twice, we can get 4 a + b + c + d ≥ 4 a b c d and 4 a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ≥ 4 a b c d 1 . Multiplying both equations together, we get ( a + b + c + d ) ( a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ) ≥ 4 1 × 1 6 . Noting that a + b + c + d = 1 , we get that a 1 + b 1 + c 1 + d 1 ≥ 1 6 .
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