Chocolate Bar

Alice has a 2 × 3 2\times 3 chocolate bar. She wants to break it into 6 equal pieces by picking up every piece that is not size 1 × 1 1\times 1 and cutting it horizontally or vertically along the grid line into two pieces. One way to do it with 5 cuts is shown in the diagram below:

Is there a way that Alice can do it with fewer than 5 cuts?

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2 solutions

Stephen Brown
Aug 18, 2017

Each cut increases the number of pieces by 1. To get from 1 piece to 6 pieces requires exactly 5 cuts.

oh nice. i tried every combination, but your way is a lot nicer.

maxime weill - 3 years, 9 months ago

Why can't you cut horizontal first the 2 vertical.

John Howey - 3 years, 9 months ago

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You can't cut two pieces at once; after the first cut, you're left with two 1x3 pieces, each of which you have to cut twice.

Stephen Brown - 3 years, 9 months ago

Wow this technique is awesome

Shashwat Dhurandhar - 3 years, 9 months ago
Steven Yuan
Aug 23, 2017

This problem can be generalized for an m × n m \times n bar of chocolate, where m , n m, n are positive integers. We shall prove that if we follow the procedure given in the problem, it will always require exactly m n 1 mn - 1 cuts to break the m × n m \times n bar of chocolate into 1 × 1 1 \times 1 pieces.

The quick way to prove this is to use Stephen's observation: whenever we cut, we always increase the number of pieces by 1. In this scenario, we call the number of pieces of chocolate a monovariant , since it increases by a set amount each time a cut is made. Thus, in order to get exactly k k pieces of chocolate, we must perform k 1 k - 1 cuts. Plugging in k = m n k = mn gives our desired result.

Alternatively, we can use strong induction to prove our assertion. Let C ( m , n ) C(m, n) be the number of cuts necessary to break a m × n m \times n bar of chocolate into 1 × 1 1 \times 1 squares. For our base case, C ( 1 , 1 ) = 0 , C(1, 1) = 0, since a 1 × 1 1 \times 1 piece of chocolate is already broken up as much as it can be. Since 0 = 1 ( 1 ) 1 , 0 = 1(1) - 1, our base case is proven.

For the inductive step, first let x , y x, y be some positive integers. Suppose the assertion that C ( m , n ) = m n 1 C(m, n) = mn - 1 holds for all positive integers m < x m < x and n < y . n < y. Now, consider an x × y x \times y bar of chocolate. We can cut this into two pieces with dimensions x 1 × y x_1 \times y and x 2 × y , x_2 \times y, where x 1 , x 2 x_1, x_2 are positive integers such that x 1 + x 2 = x . x_1 + x_2 = x. By the inductive step, it would take x 1 y 1 x_1y - 1 and x 2 y 1 x_2y - 1 cuts to break the two bars into 1 × 1 1 \times 1 squares. Adding on the first cut, we get,

C ( x , y ) = 1 + ( x 1 y 1 ) + ( x 2 y 1 ) = ( x 1 + x 2 ) y 1 = x y 1. C(x, y) = 1 + (x_1y - 1) + (x_2y - 1) = (x_1 + x_2)y - 1 = xy - 1.

If instead we cut the bar into two pieces with dimensions x × y 1 x \times y_1 and x × y 2 , x \times y_2, with y 1 + y 2 = y , y_1 + y_2 = y, then a similar result can be derived.

Thus, our inductive step is complete, so it will take C ( m , n ) = m n 1 C(m, n) = mn - 1 cuts to completely cut an m × n m \times n bar of chocolate into 1 × 1 1 \times 1 squares. In the case of this problem, it will always take 2 ( 3 ) 1 = 5 2(3) - 1 = 5 cuts to break up the bar, no matter how we make the cuts. \blacksquare

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