A function f ( x ) = ⎩ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎧ x x ln x + k f ( 2 − x ) ( x ≥ 1 ) ( x < 1 ) satisfies ∫ 0 1 f ( x ) d x = 5 . Let g ( x ) = ∫ 0 x f ( t ) d t .
Find the value of ∫ 0 4 g ′ ( x ) d x .
This problem is a part of <Christmas Streak 2017> series .
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How could you conclude integral of g(x) from 0 to 2 just by symmetry?Please answer.
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Note that f ( x ) is symmetrical to x = 1 .
Then we can see that ∫ 0 2 f ( x ) d x = 1 0 ⇔ g ( 2 ) = 1 0 .
Since g ( x ) is an indefinite integral of f ( x ) , we get that g ( x ) is symmetrical to a point ( 1 , g ( 1 ) ) = ( 1 , 5 ) .
Therefore we conclude that ∫ 0 2 g ( x ) = 1 0 .
Now look at the thing we're trying to find the value of.
∫ 0 4 g ′ ( x ) d x ⇒ x = t 2 = ∫ 0 2 2 t g ′ ( t ) d t = 2 ( [ t g ( t ) ] 0 2 − ∫ 0 2 g ( t ) d t ) = 2 ( 2 g ( 2 ) − 1 0 ) = 2 0 .