Let complex numbers α and α ˉ 1 lies on circles ( x − x 0 ) 2 + ( y − y 0 ) 2 = r 2 and ( x − x 0 ) 2 + ( y − y 0 ) 2 = 4 r 2 respectively.
If z 0 = x 0 + i y 0 satisfies the equation 2 ∣ z 0 ∣ 2 = r 2 + 2 then find the value of ∣ α ∣
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i think we can apply a little trigonometry notice alpha and 1/alpha (conjugate) make same angles hence a part of same line and then use cosine formula
Can you elaborate on this?
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mod(alpha-z)^2= mod(alpha)^2+mod(z)^2 -2* mod(alpha)mod(z)cos(theta) A,
where theta is the angle between alpha and z. The angle will be the same between 1/alpha(bar) and z.
Similarly you can write mod(1/alpha(bar)-z)^2= mod(1/alpha(bar))^2+mod(z)^2-2
mod(1/alpha(bar))mod(z)cos(theta) B.
Now from the equations A and B eliminate cos theta and use the fact that mod(alpha(bar))=mod(alpha) and 2
mod(z)=r^2+2 you should get after rearranging (7 *mod(alpha)^2 -1)(mod (z)^2 -1)=0. If mod(z)^2=1 then r=0 it will be a degenerate case so mod(alpha)=1/sqrt7
PS: The computation part is a bit lengthy but if we attempt it carefully the solution is shorter and creative hope that helps, sorry I cannot draw a diagram to show you but it is not tough to visualize the geometric picture
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Given: ∣ z − z 0 ∣ = r a n d ∣ z − z 0 ∣ = 2 r Now, α and α ˉ 1 satisfies these equations in respective order.Therefore, on substituting and squaring we get: ( α − z 0 ) ( α ˉ − z 0 ˉ ) = r 2 a n d ( α ˉ 1 − z 0 ) ( α 1 − z 0 ˉ ) = 4 r 2 On subtracting the two equations we get: ∣ α ∣ 2 − 1 + ∣ z 0 ∣ 2 ( 1 − ∣ α ∣ 2 ) = r 2 ( 1 − 4 ∣ α ∣ 2 ) Now given that: ∣ z 0 ∣ 2 = 2 r 2 + 2 Hence,on substituting and simplifying we get: ∣ α ∣ 2 = 7 1 ∣ α ∣ = 7 1 ≃ 0 . 3 7 8