Codes

The numbers inside the figure given below follow some rules. Identify the number which when substituted for the question mark (?) maintains that rule

18 20 8 10

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8 solutions

Krishna Garg
Jun 22, 2014

Very simple,checking the columns of 1st and 3rd,it is multiplication ,so answer is 10.

K.K.GARG,India

alternate solution--- try adding all no s of a row/ column/diagonals... they are all multiples of 3... in which case answer is 20/8

aroop kundu - 6 years, 11 months ago

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I assume 20/8 to mean 20 or 8?

But 5, 11, 14, 17 etc also work so we can't have multiple answers.

Jerry Hollands - 6 years, 11 months ago

yes, you're right.

Agustin Peñalosa Jr. - 6 years, 11 months ago

definitely right!

Cybill Krist Badiana - 6 years, 11 months ago

i really don't get it 1 to 4 and 4 to 4?

Anthony Ma-at - 6 years, 1 month ago

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Multiply the top two numbers in each column to find the bottom number. Therefore 1x4=4 and 2x5=10!

Keshav Mahendra - 5 years, 12 months ago
Sakshi Gaur
Jul 9, 2014

11 can also be the answer.......coz the mid value horizontally is half the sum of the other two

not actually!!

kshama bhat - 6 years, 11 months ago
Karan Gujar
Jun 21, 2014

1×4=4;3×6=18;so 2×5=10

top number *middle number=bottom number

Satwik Banchhor - 6 years, 11 months ago

Yeah,i did it

Karan Gujar - 6 years, 11 months ago
Lukas Leibfried
Sep 18, 2015

Column entry 1 × \times column entry 2 = column entry 3.

Narendra Singh
Jul 18, 2014

IT's very easy divide the number in the divide the second element of the third row with second element of the row and first row gives you the answer. Ex. 4/4=1 and 18/3=6 which is the first row . So it's pretty simple

Ayushi Saini
Jul 7, 2014

that's seriously simple... , 4 x1=4(column 1) and 3x6 = 18(3rd column) thus the answer will be 10

multiply the no. in the first column to the 2nd,by row, then u will get the answer. example: 4x1=4, then 3x8=16,so 5x2=10...

Qawshik Dhali
Jun 26, 2014

18/6=3,4/4=1,10/5=2

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