Is the following necessarily true?
where
Note: 0 is not an element of the natural numbers set.
Bonus: Proofs are encouraged.
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Let N = i = 1 ∏ k ( r i n − ∑ j = 1 i − 1 r j ) Where i = 1 ∑ k r i ≤ n
Since N is a product of Binomial coefficients, it is a positive integer. But, N = i = 1 ∏ k ( r i ! ) ( n − ∑ j = 1 i r j ) ! ( n − ∑ j = 1 i − 1 r j ) ! = r 1 ! ( n − r 1 ) ! n ! × r 2 ! ( n − r 1 − r 2 ) ! ( n − r 1 ) ! . . . . . . . . = r 1 ! r 2 ! . . . . r k ! ( n − ∑ j = 1 k r j ) ! n ! Therefore, The expression given in the question is N × ( n − j = 1 ∑ k r j ) ! Which is an integer.