What is the largest integer n such that 1 0 0 n > n ! ?
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To solve this, we need the Stirling approximation, which is correct asymptotically.
n ! ≈ 2 π n ( n / e ) n → 2 1 lo g 1 0 ( 2 π n ) + n lo g 1 0 n − n lo g 1 0 e
Now, this is manageable, and if you just make a plot against 2 n you'll see that the two functions cross between n = 2 6 8 and n = 2 6 9 .
Key idea: Trying to compute the factorial directly is a recipe for disaster.
269! = 24674496683959639479411192502726424547294255297332825680197106039081288901892917898390428994254364001014736124508189279001775937834782944634392375598803528916550589946813690011829690208985566315900911455090647265355232802576460150612022157794389597509558870312080150047612904606819941984627269241198574206484947062512313239769846257455041082292703331013802572428307093284564192341826933936748033736435797155358322718943252370260495773262171506529862911305849523210563459481600000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000
Razzi FTW, you've done it! now I want to buy the same calculator that will do that for me.
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Taking logarithm (base 10) of both sides, we have
2 . n > t = 2 ∑ n l o g ( t )
we can have an estimation for ∑ t = 2 n l o g ( t ) , using Abel's lemma (take the sequence a n = 1 ) and the function f ( x ) = l o g x .
t = 2 ∑ n l o g ( t ) ≈ n . l o g n − ( n − 1 )
with this estimation, for n ≈ 1 0 0 0 the inequality starts to change sign. However, as proven practically, it is far from the answer (268). what one can do is to use the logarithmic version to facilitate the numerical evaluation of the inequality.