Roots of the equation below lie in the argand diagram on?
1 + ( 1 n ) z + ( 2 n ) z 2 + … + ( n − 1 n ) z n − 1 = 0
Details and Assumptions
( B A ) = ( A − B ) ! B ! A ! is a binomial coefficient with A ≥ B ≥ 0
This problem is part of my set Some jee problems
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Upon observation, the LHS of this complex-valued equation is just the Binomial Expansion of ( z + 1 ) n sans the z n term. We have:
( z + 1 ) n − z n = 0 ⇒ ( z + 1 ) n = z n (i)
Taking z = a + b i ; a , b ∈ R , we now transform (i) into a complex-exponential equivalent form:
[ ( a + 1 ) + b i ] n = ( a + b i ) n ;
or [ ( a + 1 ) 2 + b 2 ] n / 2 e i n ⋅ a r c t a n ( b / ( a + 1 ) ) = ( a 2 + b 2 ) n / 2 e i n ⋅ a r c t a n ( b / a ) ; (ii).
Equating the moduli in (ii) yields ( a + 1 ) 2 + b 2 = a 2 + b 2 ⇒ a = − 2 1 . Also, examination of the corresponding angles shows that:
a r c t a n ( b / ( a + 1 ) ) = a r c t a n ( b / a ) ⇒ a + 1 b = a b ⇒ 1 / 2 b = − 1 / 2 b
which means that the complex numbers ( a + 1 ) + b i and a + b i must form a complex-conjugate pair for a = − 2 1 , b = K ( K ∈ R ) . Therefore, the roots are z = − 2 1 ± K i which lie along a straight vertical line in the complex plane.
Come on this question doesn't need solution does it.!!!!
I wonder how is this on level 5.
Posted above, Ishan! I agree with you....this is no more than say a Level-3.
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Hint: Consider the binomial expansion of ( 1 + z ) n