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What about 0 0 ?
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You might want to read this article .
It's an indeterminate form each time it's equal for something infinie or number
That's not entirely true, though. Imaginary numbers can't be treated the same way as real numbers. Having i^(0) is 1 not because it behaves as a real number but rather because
i= (-1)^(1/2).
Now when taking i^(0) this is the same as having (-1)^((1/2)^(0)). So this in turn makes ((1/2)^0)=0 leaving (-1)^0 a real number and in turn because it is a real number we can say it equals 1.
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But even so, it makes very little difference how we get up there (and I think that you should multiply 2 1 by 0 , not rise it to 0 ). I agree that such differences are very crucial sometimes, but in this kind of problem I don't see a need of understanding that (although, I will add this to solution, thanks for mentioning it!)
Correct if x is non zero real. For imaginary numbers we must use an extension axiom . All the properties derive from the definition of exponemtial function in C.
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Pardon me for my curiosity, but why would the method that I have mentioned not work here?
We can write (√-1)^0 as (i)^0
i^0=[cos(π/2)+isin(π/2)]^0(since arg(i)=π/2) in polar form. =cos0+isin0(De Moivre theorem) =1.
Or i^0 in Euler's form is (e^(iπ/2))^0 =e^0=1.
Here
i 0 = e 0 ⋅ ln i = e 0 = 1
Note : − 1 still makes no sense. i is the number defined by i 2 = − 1 , but square root remains undefined for -1.
not true. the def is i = − 1 . the one you are giving can be considered wrong, although isnt. x 2 = − 1 ⟹ x = ± i
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Any number (be it complex, natural or any other) raised to the power of 0 is 1. Proof:
x 0 = x y − y = x y : x y = x y x y = 1 1
This proof shows us how raising to 0 t h power is done, down below is an explanation of why it works with imaginary numbers .
Answer to why i is treated as a real number:
i 0 is the same as: − 1 2 1 × 0
2 1 × 0 = 0
That leaves us with a real number − 1 0 (without any roots).
Thanks to Itamar Keren for clearing up confusion that has occurred.