Complex numbers also give up to 0?

Algebra Level 1

i 0 = ? \huge \color{#3D99F6}{i}^{\color{#D61F06}{0}} \ = \ ?

Note : i = 1 i= \sqrt{-1}

1 -1 0 i -i i i

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6 solutions

Zyberg Nee
Dec 20, 2015

Any number (be it complex, natural or any other) raised to the power of 0 is 1. Proof:

x 0 = x y y = x y : x y = x y x y = 1 1 x^{0}=x^{y-y}=x^{y}:x^{y}=\frac{x^{y}}{x^{y}} = \frac{1}{1}

This proof shows us how raising to 0 t h 0^{th} power is done, down below is an explanation of why it works with imaginary numbers .


Answer to why i i is treated as a real number:

i 0 i^{0} is the same as: 1 1 2 × 0 -1^{\frac{1}{2} \times 0}

1 2 × 0 = 0 \frac{1}{2} \times 0 = 0

That leaves us with a real number 1 0 -1^{0} (without any roots).

Thanks to Itamar Keren for clearing up confusion that has occurred.

What about 0 0 0^0 ?

Rohit Udaiwal - 5 years, 5 months ago

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You might want to read this article .

Zyberg NEE - 5 years, 5 months ago

It's an indeterminate form each time it's equal for something infinie or number

Pierre Akoury - 5 years, 5 months ago

That's not entirely true, though. Imaginary numbers can't be treated the same way as real numbers. Having i^(0) is 1 not because it behaves as a real number but rather because

i= (-1)^(1/2).

Now when taking i^(0) this is the same as having (-1)^((1/2)^(0)). So this in turn makes ((1/2)^0)=0 leaving (-1)^0 a real number and in turn because it is a real number we can say it equals 1.

Itamar Keren - 5 years, 5 months ago

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But even so, it makes very little difference how we get up there (and I think that you should multiply 1 2 \frac{1}{2} by 0 0 , not rise it to 0 0 ). I agree that such differences are very crucial sometimes, but in this kind of problem I don't see a need of understanding that (although, I will add this to solution, thanks for mentioning it!)

Zyberg NEE - 5 years, 5 months ago

Correct if x is non zero real. For imaginary numbers we must use an extension axiom . All the properties derive from the definition of exponemtial function in C.

riccardo lombardi - 5 years, 5 months ago

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Pardon me for my curiosity, but why would the method that I have mentioned not work here?

Zyberg NEE - 5 years, 5 months ago
Sherwin D'souza
Dec 25, 2015

We can write (√-1)^0 as (i)^0

i^0=[cos(π/2)+isin(π/2)]^0(since arg(i)=π/2) in polar form. =cos0+isin0(De Moivre theorem) =1.

Or i^0 in Euler's form is (e^(iπ/2))^0 =e^0=1.

But Di=[0,+00)

Andrew Cours
Dec 25, 2015

Nice question

Jason Simmons
Dec 22, 2015

Here

i 0 = e 0 ln i = e 0 = 1 i^0= e^{0 \cdot \ln i} = e^0 =1

Corentin Colas
Dec 21, 2015

Note : 1 \sqrt{-1} still makes no sense. i is the number defined by i 2 = 1 i^2=-1 , but square root remains undefined for -1.

not true. the def is i = 1 i=\sqrt{-1} . the one you are giving can be considered wrong, although isnt. x 2 = 1 x = ± i x^2=-1\Longrightarrow x=\pm i

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 5 months ago

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