A π − i ln ( B + C )
There is no real value for sin − 1 ( 2 ) but it has a complex one. And it is of the form as described above where, A , B and C are positive integers. Evaluate A + B + C .
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
What critteria did you used for choose the positive branch? Thanks.
Thanks for your solution
An other solution:
We put the point M(a,b) such as ; sin(-1).(2) = a + ib
so sin(a+ib) = 2
so sin(a)cos(ib)+sin(ib)cos(a) = 2
.And we know that: sinh(b)=i.sin(ib) and cosh(b)=cos(ib) (by definition)
so sin(a)cosh(b) - i.sinh(b)cos(a) = 2
so the imaginary part equal to zero, This means that either sinh(b) or cos(a) must be zero so: sinh(b) = 0 or cos(a) = 0
but if sinh(b) were zero, that would mean b=0, which would mean x was real. Since we know that is not the case so: cos(a)=0. Which means that a = pi/2
We go back to the real part : sin(a)cosh(b) = 2
And sin(a) = 1 cause a = pi/2
so cosh(b) = 2
And we know that : cosh(b)= ( exp(b) + exp(-b) ) / 2. (by definition)
so after solving this equation ; ( exp(b) + exp(-b) ) / 2 = 2
we get ; exp(b) = 2 + square root (3) so b = ln( 2 + square root (3) )
so a = pi/2 and b = ln( 2 + square root (3) )
then we get sin(-1).(2) = pi/2 + ln( 2 + square root (3) )
so a+b+c=7!
My question, why sin x = 2 i e i x − e − i x and why ln i = 2 i π thanks
Log in to reply
For the sin it's known as Euler trigonometric formula, and for the second we know that i= exp( i*(pi/2) ) so ln(i) = ln( exp( i*(pi/2) ) ) so ln(i) = i*(pi/2)
Consider a case a r c s i n 2 = 2 π − i ln 2 where i = − 1 now 2 = sin ( π / 2 − i ln 2 so sin ( π / 2 − i ln 2 is equivalent to imaginary part of e i π / 2 + ln 2 which is 2 e i π / 2 which gives us imaginary part = 2 but this is no where close to your solution. If i am going wrong anywhere please tell.
I think Pi/2 + j Ln (2 + Sqrt (3)) or Pi/2 - j Ln (2 - Sqrt (3)) is for Acosh (2) = 1.316957896924816708625046347308 of positive value only despite graph for forward function, for a one to one mapping to inverse function likes Asin (1) or Asin (2). Just like x = Sqrt (2) for x^2 = 2 but Sqrt (2) <> - Sqrt (2).
We can't make Sqrt (C) = - Sqrt (3) strictly. Therefore, the question should avoid mapping of Acosh (2) to -1.316957896924816708625046347308 or Asin (2) to Pi/2 - j Ln (2 + Sqrt (3)).
Sin p Cosh q + j Cos p Sinh q = 2 + j 0
q <> 0 therefore Cos p = 0 => p = Pi/ 2;
Sin Pi/ 2 Cosh q = 2 => q = Acosh (2) = Ln (2 + Sqrt (3)) or - Ln (2 - Sqrt (3)) only! {Your calculator shall give you only 1.316957896924816708625046347308 because this is a 1 to 1 mapping.
But we are talking about arcsin ( 2 ) = 2 π − i ln ( 2 + 3 ) and not 2 π + i ln ( 2 + 3 )
You can add "\ (" before and "\ )" after (without the space) of your formulas to appear nicely in LaTex here. You can see what we have keyed in in LaTex by place your mouse cursor over the formulas.
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Let x = sin − 1 2 , so sin x = 2 or 2 i e i x − e − i x = 2 Let y = e i x and get a quadratic y − y 1 = 4 i y 2 − 4 i y − 1 = 0 y = i ( 2 ± 3 ) Now for evaluating x we have e i x = i ( 2 ± 3 ) i x = ln ( i ( 2 ± 3 ) ) x = − i ln ( i ( 2 ± 3 ) ) Positive branch must be chosen, thus x = − i ln i − i ln ( 2 + 3 ) = − i 2 i π − i ln ( 2 + 3 ) = 2 π − i ln ( 2 + 3 )