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Yeah, we can use that as well! It's just the same actually!
We need to find lim n → ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! ! ( n − 1 ) ! ! ( n ! ! ) 2 for even n . We will use some basic results from Calculus I. Let a n = 0 ∫ π / 2 sin n x d x . Using Integration by parts, one can show that a n = n ! ! ( n − 1 ) ! ! for odd n and a n = n ! ! ( n − 1 ) ! ! 2 π for even n . Also, it is easy to see that lim n → ∞ a n a n + 1 = 1 . For even n , we have a n a n + 1 = ( n + 1 ) ! ! ( n − 1 ) ! ! ( n ! ! ) 2 π 2 . Taking the limit and multiplying with 2 π , we find that lim n → ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! ! ( n − 1 ) ! ! ( n ! ! ) 2 = 2 π .
If you view the image, you see that it is literally half a pie. Therefore, logically, we may assume that answer
This series reduces to 2 times the convergence value for the series product of (n^2-1)/n^2, where n=3,5,7,... A simple computer program shows that the series product converges on pi/4, so 2 times this is pi/2.
We recommend not using a simple computer program to help with your calculation especially when one isn't required.
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It is just equal to l i m n − > ∞ ( ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ! ( 2 n − 1 ) ! ! ( 2 n ) ! ! 2 )
Now, using stirling's approximation(of course we have to simplify this double factorial into single one and so on but that's just trivial),
it equals -
l i m n − > ∞ ( 2 n + 1 n π )
which is just(you can use anything, L'hopital's rule preferably)
2 π