Continuity of function

Calculus Level 3

Let a 1 < a 2 < < a n a_1 < a_2 < \cdots < a_n be real numbers. In terms of n n , find the total number of real roots (of x x ) satisfying 1 x a 1 + 1 x a 2 + + 1 x a n = 0. \dfrac1{x-a_1} + \dfrac1{x-a_2} + \cdots + \dfrac1{x-a_n} = 0 .

n 2 n-2 n 1 n-1 n + 1 n+1 n n

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3 solutions

Brian Moehring
Sep 15, 2018

Define f ( x ) = 1 x a 1 + 1 x a 2 + + 1 x a n . f(x) = \frac{1}{x-a_1} + \frac{1}{x-a_2} + \cdots + \frac{1}{x-a_n}.

  • f ( x ) k = 1 n ( x a k ) = 0 \displaystyle f(x) \prod_{k=1}^n (x-a_k) = 0 is a polynomial equation of degree n 1 , n-1, so we can conclude that f ( x ) = 0 f(x) = 0 has at most n 1 n-1 real roots.
  • For 1 k n 1 , 1\leq k \leq n-1, we can see that f ( x ) f(x) is continuous on ( a k , a k + 1 ) (a_k, a_{k+1}) and lim x a k + f ( x ) = + lim x a k + 1 f ( x ) = \lim_{x\to a_k^+} f(x) = +\infty \\ \lim_{x\to a_{k+1}^-} f(x) = -\infty so by the intermediate value theorem, there is at least one real root in each ( a k , a k + 1 ) , (a_k, a_{k+1}), so f ( x ) = 0 f(x) = 0 has at least n 1 n-1 real roots.

Together, this shows f ( x ) = 0 f(x) = 0 has exactly n 1 n-1 real roots (and further, every root of f ( x ) = 0 f(x)=0 is simple)

I think that is a great approach. But how do you know f(x) is continuous on intervals (ak, ak+1)?

David Ahn - 2 years, 8 months ago

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Each function x 1 x a k x \mapsto \frac{1}{x-a_k} is has a single discontinuity at x = a k , x=a_k, so f ( x ) , f(x), as the sum of these functions, is continuous everywhere except x { a 1 , a 2 , , a n } . x \in \{a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n\}.

This means that if f ( x ) f(x) were not continuous on ( a k , a k + 1 ) , (a_k, a_{k+1}), then we would have some a i ( a k , a k + 1 ) a k < a i < a k + 1 , a_i \in (a_k, a_{k+1}) \iff a_k < a_i < a_{k+1}, which is absurd because we were told a 1 < a 2 < < a n a_1 < a_2 < \cdots < a_n and k , k + 1 k, k+1 are consecutive integers.

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 8 months ago

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Ok, I think that is pretty reasonable.

David Ahn - 2 years, 8 months ago
David Ahn
Sep 15, 2018

Let f(x)= 1 x a 1 \frac{1}{x-a_1} + 1 x a 2 \frac{1}{x-a_2} +...+ 1 x a n \frac{1}{x-a_n} , than there exists n-1th polynomial g(x) such that g(x)=( x a 1 x-a_1 )( x a 2 x-a_2 )...( x a n x-a_n )f(x). Than g( a n a_n )>0, g( a n 1 a_{n-1} )<0, g( a n 2 a_{n-2} )>0 ... Therefore, according to the intermediate value theorem, g(x)=0 must have at least one real root between each interval ( a 1 a_1 , a 2 a_2 ), ( a 2 a_2 , a 3 a_3 ),..., ( a n 1 , a_{n-1}, a n a_n ). But since the number of real roots of g(x) cannot be greater than n-1, the number of the real roots of g(x) is n-1. Also, since the roots of g(x) do not make f(x)'s denominator 0, the number of the real roots of f(x) is n-1.

Pradeep Tripathi
Sep 15, 2018

If a polynomial has degree n, then it will have n real solutions(if all it's coefficients are real).

In this polynomial, the function has degree n-1, so it will have n-1 solutions.

"If a polynomial has degree n, then it will have n real solutions(if all it's coefficients are real)."

This statement is false. For example, the polynomial x 2 + 1 x^2 + 1 has no real solutions.

Jon Haussmann - 2 years, 8 months ago

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