A real-valued function f is said to have the intermediate value property if for every [ a , b ] in the domain of f , and for every
x ∈ [ min ( f ( a ) , f ( b ) ) , max ( f ( a ) , f ( b ) ) ] ,
there exists some c ∈ [ a , b ] such that f ( c ) = x .
The intermediate value theorem states that if f is continuous, then f has the intermediate value property. Is the converse of this theorem true? That is, if a function has the intermediate value property, must it be continuous on its domain?
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(I know you didn't write this question, but I have some concerns about it)
Should the property hold for every possible pair of endpoints a , b , or just the endpoints of the domain? I'm thinking the former, since otherwise an "obvious discontinuity" counter example of f ( x ) : [ 0 , 2 ] → [ 0 , 1 ) , f ( x ) = { x } the fractional part function would suffice.
Since the domain could be unbounded (and that the function need not be achieved), the max/min might not be achieved. Should min/max be replaced with open interval of inf/sup?
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Good points. I imagine the intention was that the property was supposed to hold for any interval in the domain. So: " f is a function on an interval, and for any a , b in the domain of f , and any c between f ( a ) and f ( b ) , there is an x ∈ [ a , b ] such that f ( x ) = c . Is f necessarily continuous on its domain?" That fixes 1 and 2, I think?
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The answer is no. The function f ( x ) = { sin ( 1 / x ) 0 if x = 0 if x = 0 has the desired property, and is discontinuous at 0 .
Functions satisfying the intermediate value property are called Darboux functions ; Darboux proved that the derivative of a differentiable function is always a Darboux function, even if that derivative is discontinous.