Cupid's Arrows

x 2 + ( 5 4 y x ) 2 = 1. \large x^2 + \left(\dfrac {5}{4}y - \sqrt{|x|} \right)^2 = 1 .

A 1- T T magnetic field is directed towards and parallel to the positive z z -axis. Determine the magnetic flux (in W b Wb , to the nearest tenths) of the area enclosed by the equation above.

Plot of the equation above Plot of the equation above

Details and Assumptions :

  • Assume that 1 unit is equivalent to 1 meter.

  • T T stands for Tesla, the unit of magnetic field strength.


The answer is 2.5.

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2 solutions

Louie Dy
Apr 29, 2016

This problem is quite mathematical, actually.

The magnetic flux is calculated by the following formula:
ϕ = B A \phi = B \cdot A

With B given, there is a need to evaluate A .

Rearranging the given equation eventually leads to two equations:
y = 4 5 ( x + 1 x 2 ) y = \dfrac{4}{5} (\sqrt{|x|} + \sqrt{1-x^2} ) and y = 4 5 ( x 1 x 2 ) y = \dfrac{4}{5} (\sqrt{|x|} - \sqrt{1-x^2} )

Evaluating the area via definite integrals,
1 1 4 5 ( x + 1 x 2 ) 4 5 ( x 1 x 2 ) d x \displaystyle\int_{-1}^{1} \dfrac{4}{5} (\sqrt{|x|} + \sqrt{1-x^2} ) - \dfrac{4}{5} (\sqrt{|x|} - \sqrt{1-x^2} ) \text{d}x

1 1 8 5 ( 1 x 2 ) d x \displaystyle\int_{-1}^{1} \dfrac{8}{5}( \sqrt{1-x^2}) \text{d}x\

8 5 π 2 \dfrac{8}{5} \cdot \dfrac{\pi}{2}

2.5 2.5

Substituting back to the formula for magnetic flux results in 2.5 \boxed{2.5} Wb.

But why do you take 1 1 ( P 1 P 2 ) d x \int_{-1}^1 (\mathcal {P_1} -\mathcal{ P_2}) \ \mathrm dx .

Shouldn't it be 1 1 ( P 1 + P 2 ) d x \int_{-1}^1 (\mathcal {P_1} +\mathcal{ P_2}) \ \mathrm dx

Thanks!

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 1 month ago

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To get the area enclosed by two curves, the "lower function" is subtracted from the "upper function"...

If one does the latter part, it's simply adding the area enclosed by each function and the x-axis (and there are two x-intercepts to consider!) which is outside the enclosed area as defined by the problem.

Louie Dy - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Aha! I had not quite understood the solution then! I do now. Thanks!

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years ago

Φ = B A \Phi = B_\perp A , and with B = 1 Wb/m 2 B_\perp = 1\ \text{Wb/m}^2 this problem is equivalent to asking for the area.

The trick is to ignore the x \sqrt{|x|} term. Without it, the equation describes an ellipse. With the term, each vertical "strip" of the area is shifted upward without affecting its length.

So I look at x 2 + ( 5 4 y ) 2 = 1 x^2 + (\tfrac 54 y)^2 = 1 and recognize is as the equation of an ellipse. Its extreme points are when x 2 = 1 x^2 = 1 and ( 5 4 y ) 2 = 1 (\tfrac54 y)^2 = 1 , so it follows that the semimajor and semiminor axes have lengths a = 1 a = 1 and b = 4 5 b = \tfrac45 respectively.

The area of an ellipse is A = a b π = 1 4 5 π 2.513 A = ab\pi = 1\cdot \tfrac 45\cdot \pi \approx \boxed{2.513} .

I used integration but is a long and inelegant process. I find your trick very interesting.. But I don't understand why ignoring the sqrt(abs(x)) term we obtain an ellipse which has the same area of the first surface. Please, could you explain me this? Thanks! :D

Leonardo Vannini - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Consider a small vertical strip of the area, at horizontal position x x and of width d x d x , between y 1 y_1 and y 2 y_2 . The area of this strip is d A = ( y 2 y 1 ) d x dA = (y_2-y_1)\:dx .

If I replace y 1 y_1 and y 2 y_2 by y 1 + f ( x ) y_1 + f(x) and y 2 + f ( x ) y_2 + f(x) , the strip is shifted vertically but the its area remains the same. Applying this to all strips, the total area remains the same.

Now choose f ( x ) = 4 5 x f(x) = \tfrac45\sqrt{|x|} , and you apply this transformation. You'll find that x 2 + ( 5 4 y x ) 2 = 1 x^2 + \left(\frac 54 y - \sqrt{|x|}\right)^2 = 1 is transformed into x 2 + ( 5 4 y ) 2 = 1. x^2 + \left(\frac 54 y\right)^2 = 1.

Arjen Vreugdenhil - 5 years, 1 month ago

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So great observation.. Perfect! Is completely clear. Thank you so much.

Leonardo Vannini - 5 years, 1 month ago

Absolutely Wonderful and beautiful method sir

Ritu Roy - 4 years, 10 months ago

But a doubt,

Isn't magnetic flux Φ B \Phi_B equal to Φ B = P B d \Phi_B = \oint_{\mathcal{P}}\vec B\cdot \mathrm d\vec \ell

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 1 month ago

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No, it's Φ B = S B d S . \Phi_B = \int_S \vec B\cdot d\vec S. The expression you mention plays a role in Ampere's law: C B d = μ 0 S I d S . \oint_C \vec B\cdot d\vec \ell = \mu_0 \int_S \vec I\cdot d\vec S.

Arjen Vreugdenhil - 5 years, 1 month ago

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OK thanks. I just took it analogues to Gauss Law.

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 1 month ago

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