If A = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x 1 / p ) q d x and B = ∫ 0 1 ( 1 − x 1 / q ) p d x , for p > 0 and q > 0 , what is the value of A − B ?
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The answer is actually not independent of p and q. It can be shown that A=B for all positive values of p and q, and that both integrals equal: (p!)(q!)/(p+q)!
For A: Let u = 1 − x 1 / p ⇒ d u = − p 1 x x P 1 d x
⇒ d x = − p ( 1 − u ) p − 1 d u
⇒ A = ∫ 1 0 ( − p u q ( 1 − u ) p − 1 ) d u
Integrating by parts yields: A = p ( p u q ( 1 − u ) p + p ( p + 1 ) q u q − 1 ( 1 − u ) p + 1 + . . . + ( p + q ) ! q ! ( p − 1 ) ! ( 1 − u ) p + q − 1 ) Which we evaluate from 1 to 0. When u = 0 , it is clear that all terms except the last drop out. When u = 1 all terms will drop out, hence we have:
A = ( p + q ) ! q ! p !
B is evaluated in the exact same way, with v substituted for u.
You can use the app daum equation editor to type latex.I also don't know latex but with that app I can directly type that out
Thanks Ronak
That's a good way too. But Integration by parts is tedious, albeit very useful.
Also the answer is independent of p and q ... !! a troll problem anyways :P
Just substitute p=q=1 , we have the same integral A=B !
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This problem can be tricky. The most direct way is to start by making the substitution u = 1 − x 1 / p and v = 1 − x 1 / q . Then evaluate the two integrals using the Beta function. Since the Beta function is commutative, A = B ; therefore, A − B = 0 .