Curious Integrals

Calculus Level 2

If A = 0 1 ( 1 x 1 / p ) q d x A=\int _{ 0 }^{ 1 }{ { \left( 1-{ x }^{ 1/p } \right) }^{ q } } dx and B = 0 1 ( 1 x 1 / q ) p d x , B=\int _{ 0 }^{ 1 }{ { \left( 1-{ x }^{ 1/q } \right) }^{ p} } dx, for p > 0 p > 0 and q > 0 q > 0 , what is the value of A B ? A - B?


The answer is 0.

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3 solutions

Steven Zheng
Jul 18, 2014

This problem can be tricky. The most direct way is to start by making the substitution u = 1 x 1 / p u = 1 - {x}^{1/p} and v = 1 x 1 / q v = 1 - {x}^{1/q} . Then evaluate the two integrals using the Beta function. Since the Beta function is commutative, A = B ; A=B; therefore, A B = 0. A - B = 0.

The answer is actually not independent of p and q. It can be shown that A=B for all positive values of p and q, and that both integrals equal: (p!)(q!)/(p+q)!

For A: Let u = 1 x 1 / p u=1-x^{1/p} \Rightarrow d u = 1 p x 1 P x d x du=-\frac{1}{p}\frac{x^{\frac{1}{P}}}{x}dx

\Rightarrow d x = p ( 1 u ) p 1 d u dx=-p(1-u)^{p-1}du

\Rightarrow A = 1 0 ( p u q ( 1 u ) p 1 ) d u A=\int^0_1 (-pu^q(1-u)^{p-1})\,du

Integrating by parts yields: A = p ( u q ( 1 u ) p p + q u q 1 ( 1 u ) p + 1 p ( p + 1 ) + . . . + q ! ( p 1 ) ! ( 1 u ) p + q 1 ( p + q ) ! ) A=p(\frac{u^q(1-u)^p}{p}+\frac{qu^{q-1}(1-u)^{p+1}}{p(p+1)}+...+\frac{q!(p-1)!(1-u)^{p+q-1}}{(p+q)!}) Which we evaluate from 1 to 0. When u = 0 u=0 , it is clear that all terms except the last drop out. When u = 1 u=1 all terms will drop out, hence we have:

A = q ! p ! ( p + q ) ! A=\frac{q!p!}{(p+q)!}

B is evaluated in the exact same way, with v substituted for u.

You can use the app daum equation editor to type latex.I also don't know latex but with that app I can directly type that out

Ronak Agarwal - 6 years, 10 months ago

Thanks Ronak

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 10 months ago

That's a good way too. But Integration by parts is tedious, albeit very useful.

Steven Zheng - 6 years, 9 months ago
Ramesh Goenka
Jul 19, 2014

Also the answer is independent of p and q ... !! a troll problem anyways :P

Just substitute p=q=1 , we have the same integral A=B !

Sivaramakrishnan Sivakumar - 6 years, 9 months ago

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