A block of mass m is connected to one end of a spring of force constant k and natural length L 0 . The other end of the spring is fixed in place at the origin ( x , y ) = ( 0 , 0 ) . At time t = 0 , the block is at position ( x , y ) = ( 1 , 0 ) with velocity ( x ˙ , y ˙ ) = ( 1 0 , 1 0 ) . The ambient gravitational acceleration g is downward, which corresponds to the − y direction. As the block moves, it is subjected to damping forces, such that the total force on it is:
F = F s + F g + F D = F s + F g − D v
In the above equation, F s is the spring force exerted on the block, F g is the gravity force exerted on the block, F D is the damping force exerted on the block, v is the velocity of the block, and D is a damping constant.
At time t = 6 . 6 , how far away is the block from the origin?
Details and Assumptions:
1)
m
=
1
2)
g
=
1
0
3)
k
=
5
4)
L
0
=
1
5)
D
=
0
.
5
6)
Assume standard
S
I
units for all quantities
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Season's greetings to you! I have developed an interest in vibrations off late and have posted some exercises recently. Do give it a try if you share my interest.
I used Newton's laws like Karan Chatrath. The second graph of his is a cool result that is typical of a spring pendulum.
In this scenario, representing the equation of motion in vector form is very useful.
Here are the details of my simulation solution:
Spring force
The spring force acts radially inward towards ( 0 , 0 ) , so it is useful to develop an expression for the unit radial vector:
R ^ = ⟨ x 2 + y 2 x , x 2 + y 2 y ⟩
So that at any point in the trajectory of the particle we know the direction that the spring force will act in.
As for the final value of the spring force:
F s = − k ( x 2 + y 2 − l 0 ) R ^
Gravitational force
This one's fairly easy as it's always pointing downwards in our standard basis: [ 0 − m g ]
Drag force
The drag force acts in the opposite direction to velocity and has a constant of 0 . 5 , so:
F d = − D [ x ˙ y ˙ ]
Final expression
m [ x ¨ y ¨ ] = − k ( x 2 + y 2 − l 0 ) R ^ + [ 0 − m g ] + − D [ x ˙ y ˙ ]
Now that we are keeping track of x and y and their derivatives, along with useful vectors, we just have to numerically solve, numerically integrating both components and recombining them into a displacement vector.
Here's the code:
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At a general time t , let the coordinates of the particle be ( x , y ) and the velocity components be ( x ˙ , y ˙ ) . The equations of motion are:
m [ x ¨ y ¨ ] = F S + F D + F G ⟹ m [ x ¨ y ¨ ] = − x 2 + y 2 K ( x 2 + y 2 − L o ) [ x y ] − D [ x ˙ y ˙ ] + [ 0 − m g ]
x ( 0 ) = 1 ; y ( 0 ) = 0 ; x ˙ ( 0 ) = y ˙ ( 0 ) = 1 0
Solving this numerically for 6.6 seconds yields the required answer which is:
A N S W E R = x ( 6 . 6 ) 2 + y ( 6 . 6 ) 2 ≈ 1 . 9 7 1
The plot of the particle's trajectory is shown as follows:
One can see that damping makes the motion pretty uninteresting and predictable. The particle eventually settles to its stable equilibrium position of ( 0 , − 3 ) . This is unlike the case of no damping which results is a very nice looking quasi-periodic like trajectory.