If given that ∫ 0 2 π 3 1 + 5 cos x + 6 sin x d x = a π , find the value of ⌈ 2 a 2 ⌉ .
Clarification: ⌈ . . ⌉ denotes ceiling function .
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i did the same way
Same as I did.
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I don't understand what are the steps in order to come to the right answer after you figure out that plugging the limits doesn't work.
pranjal check the integration using algeo. it will come out something else.
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Algeo has some bugs which I have already reported to the developers.
Also did the same way . But first changed the limits and got the answer 0 . But after that i integrated the function and then applied the limits. Why do we get such different answers even both methods are similar
Please explain how you got pi from the tan inverse
I think you should break the function as tan ( x ) is discontinuous function,and then you can also put the limits..!!
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∫ 0 2 π 3 1 + 5 c o s x + 6 s i n x d x ∫ 0 2 π 3 1 + 5 1 + t a n 2 2 x 1 − t a n 2 2 x + 6 1 + t a n 2 2 x 2 t a n 2 x d x ∫ 0 2 π 2 6 t a n 2 2 x + 1 2 t a n 2 x + 3 6 s e c 2 2 x . d x n o w p u t t a n 2 x = t s e c 2 2 x . d x = 2 . d t ∫ 1 3 t 2 + 6 t + 1 8 d t 1 3 1 ∫ ( t + 1 3 3 ) 2 + ( 1 3 1 5 ) 2 d t 1 5 1 t a n − 1 ( 1 5 1 3 t a n 2 x + 3 ) 0 ∣ 2 π = 1 5 Π N O T E : I f y o u d i r e c t l y p u t t h e l i m i t s , t h e n y o u w i l l g e t a n s w e r = 0 S o r a t h e r t h a n p u t t i n g t h e l i m i t s d i r e c t l y , d r a w t h e g r a p h o f t h i s f u n c t i o n t o i d e n t i f y t h e r a n g e o v e r w h i c h f u n c t i o n i s m o n o t o n o u s .