∫ 0 ∞ x e − 5 x sin 3 ( 4 x ) d x = b a π − b c arctan ( b d ) + b a arctan ( b c d )
In the equation above, a , b , c , and d are positive coprime integers. Submit a + b + c + d .
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Greetings! I attempted your latest problem earlier and I gave it shot again today. I speak of the problem on a particle constrained to a paraboloid surface. In all honesty, I am grappling with it. I see a solution posted but I do not want to concede the problem yet. I tried to take a brute force numerical route (taking α as a tuning parameter) and I noticed that the answer must be close to ≈ 1 2 as the particle is seeming to converge to a single orbit in this ballpark. Any analytical attempts always yield an answer of α = 1 which is the relatively trivial case of the particle moving in circles at a constant height.
I was wondering if you could give a tiny hint as to how to approach the problem? I hope I am making a reasonable request. Thanks in advance.
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That is in the right ballpark for α 0 . If you look at my solution for the “Inspiration” problem, I found a definite integral for the angle the particle moved through during a half period (of z oscillations). Do the same in this case, and the resulting angle is a function of α alone. You then want to make that angle equal to π by finding the right value of α ...
A solution not as Brilliant as Mr @Mark Hennings one, but still:
I = ∫ 0 ∞ x e − 5 x sin 3 ( 4 x ) d x
Since sin ( 3 x ) = 3 sin ( x ) − 4 sin 3 ( x ) , we can deduce that sin ( 1 2 x ) = 3 sin ( 4 x ) − 4 sin 3 ( 4 x ) , or, sin 3 ( 4 x ) = 4 3 sin ( 4 x ) − sin ( 1 2 x )
I = 4 3 ∫ 0 ∞ x e − 5 x sin ( 4 x ) d x − 4 1 ∫ 0 ∞ x e − 5 x sin ( 1 2 x ) d x
From the Maclaurin series of the sine:
I = 4 3 ∫ 0 ∞ x e − 5 x n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n ( 4 x ) 2 n + 1 d x − 4 1 ∫ 0 ∞ x e − 5 x n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n ( 1 2 x ) 2 n + 1 d x
I = 4 3 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n 4 2 n + 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − 5 x x 2 n d x − 4 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n 1 2 2 n + 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − 5 x x 2 n d x
On both integrals, make x = 5 t , d x = 5 d t :
I = 4 3 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n ( 5 4 ) 2 n + 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − t t 2 n d t − 4 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ! ( − 1 ) n ( 5 1 2 ) 2 n + 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − t t 2 n d t
Both integrals will be equal to Γ ( 2 n + 1 ) = ( 2 n ) ! ( Γ ( z ) is the Gamma Function ). Also, since ( 2 n + 1 ) ! = ( 2 n ) ! ⋅ ( 2 n + 1 ) , one has:
I = 4 3 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ( − 1 ) n ( 5 4 ) 2 n + 1 − 4 1 n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n + 1 ) ( − 1 ) n ( 5 1 2 ) 2 n + 1
From the Maclaurin series of the arc-tangent:
I = 4 3 arctan ( 5 4 ) − 4 1 arctan ( 5 1 2 )
Since arctan ( x ) = 2 π − arctan ( x 1 )
I = 4 3 [ 2 π − arctan ( 4 5 ) ] − 4 1 [ 2 π − arctan ( 1 2 5 ) ]
I = 4 π − 4 3 arctan ( 4 5 ) + 4 1 arctan ( 1 2 5 )
So:
a = 1 , b = 4 , c = 3 , d = 5 → a + b + c + d = 1 3
Very nice. Thanks for the solution.
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If we define F b ( a ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x e − a x sin b x d x for a , b > 0 then F b ( a ) → 0 as a → ∞ , while F b ′ ( a ) = − ∫ 0 ∞ e − a x sin b x d x = − a 2 + b 2 b and hence F b ( a ) = 2 1 π − tan − 1 b a Since sin 3 x = 3 sin x − 4 sin 3 x we deduce that ∫ 0 ∞ x e − a x sin 3 ( 4 x ) d x = 4 3 F 4 ( a ) − 4 1 F 1 2 ( a ) = 4 1 π − 4 3 tan − 1 4 a + 4 1 tan − 1 1 2 a making the desired integral 4 1 π − 4 3 tan − 1 4 5 + 4 1 tan − 1 1 2 5 and hence the answer is 1 + 4 + 3 + 5 = 1 3 .