Degree 99 Polynomial

Algebra Level 5

f ( x ) f(x) is a polynomial of degree 99. For exactly 100 (out of 101) integer values ranging from 0 0 to 100 100 , we have f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x) = \frac {1}{x+1} . Also, f ( 101 ) = 0 f(101) = 0 . For what value of a a , 0 a 100 0 \leq a \leq 100 is f ( a ) 1 a + 1 f(a) \neq \frac {1}{a+1} ?


The answer is 50.

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14 solutions

Roberto Perez
Aug 4, 2013

It is given that for 100 values from 0 to 100 the equation f ( x ) ( x + 1 ) = 1 f(x) (x+1) = 1 .

But it is a well known theorem that if a polynomial g(x), with d e g ( g ) = n deg(g) = n , that satisfies g(x)=0 for n values a 1 , a 2 , . . . , a n a_{1}, a_{2},..., a_{n} , then g ( x ) = r ( x a 1 ) ( x a 2 ) . . . ( x a n ) g(x)=r(x-a_{1})(x-a_{2})...(x-a_{n}) , for some real constant r .

Since f ( x ) ( x + 1 ) 1 = g ( x ) = 0 f(x)(x+1)-1=g(x)=0 is satisfied for 100 values and d e g ( g ) = 100 deg(g)=100 , then

f ( x ) ( x + 1 ) 1 = r x ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) . . . ( x 100 ) x a f(x)(x+1)-1= \frac{rx(x-1)(x-2)...(x-100)}{x-a} , for the specified value a.

Now substituting x = 1 x=-1 we get that 1 = r × 101 ! 1 a -1=r \times \frac{-101!}{-1-a} since there are and odd amount of negative terms in the numerator, and so r = ( a + 1 ) 101 ! r=\frac{-(a+1)}{101!} .

Now we can use the given information that f ( 101 ) = 0 f(101)=0 , which implies that substituting x = 101 x=101 will give

1 = r × ( 101 1 ) ( 101 2 ) . . . ( 101 100 ) 101 a -1=r \times \frac{(101-1)(101-2)...(101-100)}{101-a}

1 = ( a + 1 ) 101 ! × 101 ! 101 a -1=\frac{-(a+1)}{101!} \times \frac{101!}{101-a}

1 = ( a + 1 ) 101 a -1=\frac{-(a+1)}{101-a}

a 101 = a 1 a-101=-a-1

2 a = 100 2a=100 or a = 50 a=50 .

Moderator note:

Good approach which properly uses the condition that f ( x ) f(x) is a polynomial.

Nice solution, Roberto!

jiang shi - 7 years, 10 months ago

Same as mine.But I feel lazy to type!

Kishan k - 7 years, 10 months ago

I used an idea similar to Lagrange Interpolation to solve this problem, it's nice to see solutions that are much more simpler. Nice solutions!

Xuming Liang - 7 years, 10 months ago

5th row from the bottom, there is a factor of 101 missing from the numerator. Nice solution btw!

Maurice Wei - 4 years, 9 months ago
Nathan Soedjak
May 20, 2014

We know that f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1} for all integers ranging from 0 0 to 100 100 except a a . Thus, ( x + 1 ) f ( x ) 1 = 0 (x+1)f(x)-1=0 for all integers ranging from 0 0 to 100 100 except a a . This leads us to consider the 100 degree polynomial g ( x ) = ( x + 1 ) f ( x ) 1 g(x)=(x+1)f(x)-1 , whose roots are the integers ranging from 0 0 to 100 100 except a a . (There are no more roots because g g is only of degree 100.) Therefore, we can write g ( x ) = c x ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) ( x 100 ) x a , g(x)=c\cdot \frac{x(x-1)(x-2)\cdots(x-100)}{x-a}, for some nonzero constant c c . But we are also given that f ( 101 ) = 0 f(101)=0 , which implies g ( 101 ) = 1 g(101)=-1 . Plugging in 101 101 to the above equation yields c 101 ! 101 a = 1 c = 101 a 101 ! c\cdot \frac{101!}{101-a}=-1\implies c=-\frac{101-a}{101!} Thus we can now write g ( x ) g(x) as g ( x ) = 101 a 101 ! x ( x 1 ) ( x 2 ) ( x 100 ) x a g(x)=-\frac{101-a}{101!}\cdot \frac{x(x-1)(x-2)\cdots(x-100)}{x-a} Now notice that from our definition of g ( x ) g(x) we have g ( x ) + 1 = ( x + 1 ) f ( x ) g(x)+1=(x+1)f(x) , which means that 1 -1 is a root of g ( x ) + 1 g(x)+1 . Thus plugging in x = 1 x=-1 into g ( x ) + 1 g(x)+1 should give us 0 0 : 101 a 101 ! ( 1 ) ( 2 ) ( 3 ) ( 101 ) 1 a + 1 = 0 , -\frac{101-a}{101!}\cdot \frac{(-1)(-2)(-3)\cdots(-101)}{-1-a}+1=0,
and after some cancellation and rearranging we get a = 50 a=\boxed{50} .

nice and clean approach

Karan Siwach - 6 years, 9 months ago
Zi Song Yeoh
May 20, 2014

Consider g ( x ) : = ( x + 1 ) f ( x ) 1 g(x) := (x + 1)f(x) - 1 which is a polynomial with degree 100 100 . Note that the roots of g ( x ) g(x) are the 100 100 integers (From f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x) = \frac{1}{x + 1} for these integers). And also note that g ( 101 ) = g ( 1 ) = 1 g(101) = g(-1) = -1 , as f ( 101 ) = 0 f(101) = 0 . Let the roots of g ( x ) g(x) be a 1 , a 2 , . . . , a 100 a_{1}, a_{2}, ... , a_{100} (which are the 100 100 integers.). Let a a be the 'leftover' integer. Let g ( x ) = A ( x a 1 ) ( x a 2 ) . . . ( x a 100 ) g(x) = A(x - a_{1})(x - a_{2})...(x - a_{100}) . Note that g ( 101 ) = ( 101 a 1 ) ( 101 a 2 ) . . . ( 101 a 100 ) g(101) = (101 - a_{1})(101 - a_{2})...(101 - a_{100}) = A ( 101 ! ) 101 a = \frac{A(101!)}{101 - a} (Since a i a_{i} ranges through 0 0 to 100 100 , except a a , and thus 100 a i 100 - a_{i} ranges through 1 1 to 101 101 , except 101 a 101 - a ) and similarly g ( 1 ) = A ( 1 a 1 ) ( 1 a 2 ) . . . ( 1 a 100 ) g(-1) = A(-1 - a_{1})(-1 - a_{2})...(-1 - a_{100}) = ( 1 ) 100 ( 1 + a 1 ) ( 1 + a 2 ) . . . ( 1 + a 100 ) = (-1)^{100}(1 + a_{1})(1 + a_{2})...(1 + a_{100}) = A ( 1 + a 1 ) ( 1 + a 2 ) . . . ( 1 + a 100 ) = A ( 101 ! ) a + 1 = A(1 + a_{1})(1 + a_{2})...(1 + a_{100}) = \frac{A(101!)}{a + 1} . Since g ( 101 ) = g ( 1 ) = 1 g(101) = g(-1) = -1 , 101 a = a + 1 a = 50 101 - a = a + 1 \Rightarrow a = \boxed{50} .

Exactly!!!!

A Former Brilliant Member - 6 years, 9 months ago
Yong See Foo
May 20, 2014

Let g g be a polynomial such that g ( x ) = ( x + 1 ) f ( x ) 1 g(x)=(x+1)f(x)-1 . The 100 100 values that satisfy f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1} are clearly the only zeros of g g , since g g is a polynomial of degree 100 100 . Observe that g ( 1 ) = g ( 101 ) = 1 g(-1)=g(101)=-1 . Now, let those 100 values that satisfy f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1} be x 1 , x 2 , x 100 x_1, x_2,\ldots x_{100} . g ( x ) g(x) can be written as A ( x x 1 ) ( x x 2 ) ( x x 100 ) A(x-x_1)(x-x_2)\ldots (x-x_{100}) , where A A is a nonzero constant. Then g ( 101 ) = A ( 101 x 1 ) ( 101 x 2 ) ( 101 x 100 ) = 101 ! A 101 a g(101)=A(101-x_1)(101-x_2)\ldots (101-x_{100})=\frac {101!A}{101-a} and also g ( 1 ) = A ( 1 x 1 ) ( 1 x 2 ) ( 1 x 100 ) = A ( 1 + x 1 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) ( 1 + x 100 ) = 101 ! A 1 + a g(1)=A(-1-x_1)(-1-x_2)\ldots (-1-x_{100})=A(1+x_1)(1+x_2)\ldots (1+x_{100})=\frac{101!A}{1+a} . So we have g ( 1 ) = g ( 101 ) 101 ! A 101 a = 101 ! A 1 + a 101 a = 1 + a g(-1)=g(101) \Rightarrow \frac {101!A}{101-a}=\frac{101!A}{1+a} \Rightarrow 101-a=1+a since A A is not zero. Solving this gives us a = 50 a=50 .

Huy Pham
May 20, 2014

Let g ( x ) = ( x + 1 ) . f ( x ) 1 g(x)=(x+1).f(x)-1 . As f(x) is a polynomial of degree 99, g(x) is a polynomial of degree 100.

However, as f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x) = \frac {1}{x+1} for exactly 100 values of x from 0 ; 1 ; ; 100 {0;1; \ldots ;100} we have that g(x)=0 for all such values.

Let the values be x 1 ; x 2 ; ; x 100 x_1; x_2; \ldots ; x_{100} . Thus, g ( x ) = k . ( x x 1 ) . ( x x 2 ) ( x x 100 ) g(x)= k. (x- x_1).(x- x_2) \ldots (x- x_{100}) for some real constant k.

We have that g(-1)=-1 since g(-1)=(-1+1).f(-1)-1=-1 and g(101)=102.f(101)-1=-1 since f(101)=0.

Thus: k . ( 1 x 1 ) . ( 1 x 2 ) ( 1 x 100 ) k . (-1-x_1).(-1-x_2) \ldots (-1-x_{100}) = k . ( 101 x 1 ) . ( 101 x 2 ) ( 101 x 100 ) . = k.(101-x_1).(101-x_2) \ldots (101-x_{100}).

However k cannot equal 0 because f(-1) is different from 0.

Thus, ( 1 x 1 ) . ( 1 x 2 ) ( 1 x 100 ) = (-1-x_1).(-1-x_2) \ldots (-1-x_{100})=

( 101 x 1 ) . ( 101 x 2 ) ( 101 x 100 ) (101- x_1).(101- x_2) \ldots (101-x_{100})

Let the value a for which f ( a ) 1 a + 1 f(a) \neq \frac {1}{a+1} be x 101 x_{101}

Then, ( 1 x 1 ) . ( 1 x 2 ) ( 1 x 100 ) (-1-x_1).(-1-x_2) \ldots (-1-x_{100}) = ( 1 + x 1 ) . ( 1 + x 2 ) ( 1 + x 100 ) =(1+x_1).(1+x_2) \ldots (1+x_{100})

= ( 1 + 0 ) . ( 1 + 1 ) ( 1 + 100 ) 1 + x 101 = \frac {(1+0).(1+1) \ldots (1+100)}{1+x_{101}}

and ( 101 x 1 ) . ( 101 x 2 ) ( 101 x 100 ) (101-x_1).(101-x_2) \ldots (101-x_{100})

= ( 101 0 ) . ( 101 1 ) ( 101 100 ) 101 x 101 = \frac {(101-0).(101-1) \ldots (101-100)}{101-x_{101}} .

Since both the numerator are equal and non-zero, we must have that: 1 + x 101 = 101 x 101 1+x_{101}=101-x_{101} , thus x 101 = 50 x_{101}=50 .

Thus, the only value of a, 0 a 100 0 \leq a \leq 100 such that f ( a ) 1 a + 1 f(a) \neq \frac {1}{a+1} is 50.

Let g ( x ) = f ( x ) ( x + 1 ) 1 g(x) = f(x)(x+1)-1 . The problem implies that g ( x ) = 0 g(x) = 0 for 100 integer values from 0 to 100 except for a a .

Also g ( 1 ) = 1 g(-1) = -1 and g ( 101 ) = f ( 101 ) 102 1 = 1 g(101) = f(101) \cdot 102 -1 = -1

Now, since g ( x ) g(x) is a polynomial of degree 100, then g ( x ) = A ( x x 1 ) ( x x 100 ) = A i = 0 100 ( x i ) x a g(x) = A(x-x_1) \cdots (x-x_{100}) = A \frac{\displaystyle\prod_{i=0}^{100}(x-i)}{x-a}

g ( 1 ) = 1 g(-1) = 1 implies 1 = A i = 0 100 ( 1 i ) 1 a = A 101 ! a + 1 1 = A\frac{\displaystyle\prod_{i=0}^{100}(-1-i)}{-1-a} = \frac{A \cdot 101!}{a+1}

g ( 101 ) = 1 g(101) = 1 implies 1 = A i = 0 100 ( 101 i ) 101 a = A 101 ! 101 a 1 = A\frac{\displaystyle\prod_{i=0}^{100}(101-i)}{101-a} = \frac{A \cdot 101!}{101-a}

From both of these equations we obtain a + 1 = 101 a a = 50 a+1 = 101-a \Rightarrow a = 50 as desired.

Samuel Virtuoso
May 20, 2014

Consider f(x)=N/(x+1), where N is divisible by x+1. Since N=1 for x= all integers between 0 and 100 inclusive except one value (which we shall assume as a), N must be of the form: 1+k x(x-1)(x-2)...(x-100)/(x-a) Note that we define the value of f(x) at x=a or x= -1 to be their limiting values so that they are continuous (the reason for which shall become obvious as we proceed). We first determine k in terms of a so that N is divisible by (x+1) Put x=-1 and solve for N=0, for which we get, k=-(1+a)/{q(101)}, where q(n)=factorial of n (n belongs to N) Next we put f(101)=0: N=0; 1+k {q(101)}/(101-a) Putting above value of k, we get a=50 We can easily see that this is the odd one out among our set of natural numbers from 0 to 100 that would yield f(x)=1/(x+1) since (x-50) no longer exists in the numerator we constructed. Fortunately, neither does x=50 coincidentally yield 1/51; hence is the required answer.

Let q ( x ) = ( 1 + x ) f ( x ) 1 q(x)= (1+x)f(x) -1 Then except for one k k in S = { 0 , 1 , 2 , . . . , 100 } S=\{0,1,2,...,100 \} , every integer in S S is a root of q q . Thus there exists α \alpha in R \mathbb{R} such that q(x)=\alpha \prod_{i=0}_{i\neq k}^{100} (x- i) Using the fact that q ( 101 ) = 1 q(101)=-1 yields α = 101 k 101 ! \alpha = \frac{101-k}{101!} Finally, noticing that q ( 1 ) = 1 q(-1)=-1 , and \prod_{i=0}_{i\neq k}^{100} (-1- i) = (-1)^{100}\frac{101!}{1+k} we get 101 k 101 ! 101 ! 1 + k = 1 101 k = 1 k k = 50 \frac{101-k}{101!} \frac{101!}{1+k} = -1 \iff 101-k=-1-k \iff k = 50

sorry that's α = 101 k 101 ! \alpha=-\frac{101-k}{101!} and so k 101 101 ! 101 ! 1 + k = 1 k 101 = 1 k \frac{k-101}{101!} \frac{101!}{1+k} =-1 \iff k-101 = -1 -k and the final answer is, well, correct.

Romain Jobredeaux - 7 years, 10 months ago
Eric Xu
May 20, 2014

Consider the polynomial g ( x ) g(x) such that g ( x ) = ( x + 1 ) f ( x ) 1 g(x)=(x+1)f(x)-1 . Note that if f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1} , g ( x ) = 0 g(x)=0 . Hence, each of the 100 100 values satisfying f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1} is a root of g ( x ) g(x) . We then can write g ( x ) g(x) as g ( x ) = c ( x ) ( x 1 ) ( . . . ) ( x 100 ) x a g(x)=\displaystyle\frac{c(x)(x-1)(...)(x-100)}{x-a} , where a a is the desired missing value.

Since f ( 101 ) = 0 f(101)=0 , g ( 101 ) = 102 f ( 101 ) 1 = c ( 101 ) ( 101 1 ) ( . . . ) ( 101 100 ) 101 a g(101)=102f(101)-1=\displaystyle\frac{c(101)(101-1)(...)(101-100)}{101-a} so 1 = c 101 ! 101 a -1=\displaystyle\frac{c*101!}{101-a} .

Also, g ( 1 ) = ( 1 + 1 ) f ( 1 ) 1 = c ( 1 ) ( 1 1 ) ( . . . ) ( 1 100 ) 1 a g(-1)=(-1+1)f(-1)-1=\displaystyle\frac{c(-1)(-1-1)(...)(-1-100)}{-1-a} so 1 = c 101 ! 1 a -1=\displaystyle\frac{-c*101!}{-1-a} .

Equating our two equations, we find that a + 1 = 101 a a+1=101-a , so a = 50 a=\boxed{50} .

Aditi Laddha
May 20, 2014

f(x)= 1/x+1 for 100 integers between 0 to 100 we can write (x+1)f(x)-1 = p(x-a {1})(x-a {2})..............(x-a {100}) .....eqn 1 where a {1}, a {2}...... a {100} are integers belonging to [0,1,2,3.....100] Since the degree of f(x) is 99, therefore f(-1)=0 It is given that f(101)=0 On applying the above 2 conditions on equation 1, we get that a_{i} does not contain 50

Ph Huyam
May 20, 2014

Let P(x)=(x+1)f(x)-1, then P(x)=kx(x-1)...(x-100)/(x-a) P(101)=102f(101)-1=0.=> k.101!+101-a=0(I) f(x)=[kx(x-1)...(x-100)+(x-a)]/[(x-a)(x+1)] Q(x)=kx(x-1)...(x-100)+(x-a).Q(-1)=0.=>-101!k-a-1=0.(II) (I)+(II)=> a=50

Shivang Jindal
May 20, 2014

Since 101 101 is a root of polynomial , we have f ( x ) = ( x 101 ) p ( x ) f(x)=(x-101)\cdot p(x) where degree of p ( x ) p(x) is 98 98 .

Now since f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x) = \frac{1}{x+1} for all values between 0 0 and 100 100 , we have p ( x ) = 1 ( x + 1 ) ( x 101 ) p(x)=\frac{1}{(x+1)(x-101)} Now its easy to see that , if x = a x=a satisfies then x = 100 a x= 100-a also satisfies the condition . now all the values except 50 50 work in pairs ( because 50 = 100 50 50 = 100-50 .

\therefore we have a = 50 \boxed{a=50}

Ahmad Zaky
May 20, 2014

Let S S be the set of all integers between 0 0 and 100 100 for which f ( x ) = 1 x + 1 f(x) = \frac{1}{x+1} for all x S x \in S . From the problem statement, we have S = 100 |S| = 100 .

Since 101 101 is a root of f ( x ) f(x) , we can rewrite f f as f ( x ) = ( 101 x ) Q ( x ) f(x) = (101-x)Q(x) , where Q ( x ) Q(x) is a polynomial of degree 98 98 . Hence, Q ( x ) = f ( x ) 101 x = 1 ( x + 1 ) ( 101 x ) Q(x) = \frac{f(x)}{101-x} = \frac{1}{(x+1)(101-x)} for all x S x \in S . Define P ( x ) = 1 ( x + 1 ) ( 101 x ) P(x) = \frac{1}{(x+1)(101-x)} . Then, substituting 100 x 100-x into the equation, we get P ( x ) = P ( 101 x ) P(x) = P(101-x) . So x S x \in S if and only if 100 x S 100-x \in S (*).

Let a a be an integer from 0 0 to 100 100 which does not belong to S S . From (*), we conclude that both a a and 100 a 100-a do not belong to S S . But, there can be at most one such a a . So, we must have a = 100 a a = 50 a = 100-a \Leftrightarrow a = 50 .

Matt McNabb
Aug 5, 2013

Let f ( x ) f'(x) be defined in the same way as f f above, except

that f ( a ) = 1 a + 1 f'(a) = \frac{1}{a+1} .

Since f ( 101 ) = 0 f'(101) = 0 , this means ( x 101 ) (x - 101) is a factor of

f ( x ) f'(x) . Let h ( x ) = f ( x ) x 101 = 1 ( x + 1 ) ( x 101 ) with 0 x 100 \begin{aligned} h'(x) &= \frac{f'(x)}{x-101} \\ &= \frac{1}{(x+1)(x-101)} \mbox{with } 0 \le x \le 100 \end{aligned} Similarly let h ( x ) h(x) be f ( x ) x 101 \frac{f(x)}{x-101} .

h ( x ) h'(x) is even; specifically, h ( x ) = h ( 100 x ) h'(x) = h'(100 - x) .

This means that if h ( a ) h ( a ) h'(a) \neq h(a) then h ( 100 a ) h ( 100 a ) h'(100-a) \neq h(100-a) .

But it was specified that only one value of f f differs from

f f' (on the domain we are looking at), therefore only one

value of h ( x ) h(x) can differ from h ( x ) h'(x) . So we we must have

a = 100 a a = 100-a , i.e. a = 50 a = \boxed{50} .

Moderator note:

This solution commits several mistakes:

  1. The assumption of "let f ( x ) f'(x) be defined in the same way as f f above" is invalid. There is no such polynomial function of degree 99 that satisfies all of those conditions (which is the point of this question).

  2. There is no strong correlation between 2 polynomial functions that satisfy f ( x i ) = g ( x i ) f(x_i) = g(x_i) for n n values, unless you know much more about their degrees. For example, there are infinitely many cubic polynomials which satisfy f ( 0 ) = f ( 1 ) = 0 f(0) = f(1) = 0 .

  3. Saying that h ( x ) = 1 ( x + 1 ) ( x 101 ) h'(x) = \frac{1}{(x+1)(x-101)} makes it a rational function, and not a polynomial. Just because you (implicitly) claim that it is a polynomial, doesn't make it so.

I tried for a long time to try and write this rigorously without having to introduce f f' and h h' .. once you realize that f ( x ) = f ( 100 x f(x) = f(100-x except at a a , the idea is obvious but it was tough to put down in rigorous fashion.

Matt McNabb - 7 years, 10 months ago

Replying to CM notes: I should also have mentioned that f'(x) and h'(x) don't have to be polynomials. But your point (2) seems to be valid, so my formal approach doesn't work. I guess I should have stuck with what I originally had in mind :)

Matt McNabb - 7 years, 10 months ago

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