Suppose I throw a fair die, and then you throw the fair die. What is the probability that your number is strictly greater than mine?
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did the same
Good Solution +1. Can you come up with a more shorter way ? And generalise it for n-side dice with numbers from 1 to n written on it ?
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Check Henryk Haniewicz's solution below. It's the solution for the generalised n-sided die.
superb solution.....
Solution is wrong. The problem said I throw a fair "dice" which is plural. Die is the singular of dice and the analysis is what happens I throw a fair "die". Go to the dictionary and look up the phrase "singular of dice" and you'll see the explanation. Common grammatical error.
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"Historically, dice is the plural of die, but in modern standard English dice is both the singular and the plural: 'throw the dice' could mean a reference to either one or more than one dice."-- Stack Exchange says so.
Note that P ( your number > my number ) = P ( your number < my number ) , since in any situation where your number is bigger than mine, swapping the two numbers would yield a situation where your number is smaller than mine.
Furthermore, 2 P ( your number > my number ) = P ( your number > my number ) + P ( your number < my number ) = 1 − P ( both numbers same ) since the three events are mutually disjoint. Thus, to compute P ( your number > my number ) , it will suffice to compute P ( both numbers same ) .
But P ( both numbers same ) is just 1 / 6 ; whatever you roll, the probability that I roll the same thing is 1 / 6 . Thus, we conclude P ( your number > my number ) = 2 1 ⋅ ( 1 − 6 1 ) = 1 2 5 .
For the first dice, probability is 1/6. Now if the number is 1, we have 5 possible outcomes for second dice, if number is 2, we have 4 possible outcomes for second dice and so on. So the probability is 1/6(5/6+4/6+3/6+2/6+1/6)
The probability of me rolling any j t h number is obviously n 1 , where n is the number of sides my die has. The probability of rolling another, k t h , number from j + 1 to n , given j , is:
P ( k > j ∣ j ) = n 1 n n − j = n 2 n − j
, since the rolls do not depend on each other. We then do the sum from j = 1 to j = n − 1 (because if we went to n , the final numerator would just be 0 anyway):
P ( k > j ) = ∑ j = 1 j = n − 1 n 2 n − j = 2 n n − 1
Assuming this is a 6 sided die (although not explicitly stated in the question), we plug in n = 6 and attain 1 2 5 .
Probability is 3 6 1 5 or 1 2 5
I'm curious...what if we were each throwing two dice, recording their respective sums, and finding the probability of one person having a greater sum?
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The possible outcomes are 36 :
1-1, 1-2, 1-3, 1-4, 1-5,1-6
2-1, 2-2, 2-3, 2-4, 2-5, 2-6
3-1, 3-2, 3-3, 3-4, 3-5, 3-6
4-1, 4-2, 4-3, 4-4, 4-5, 4-6
5-1, 5-2, 5-3, 5-4, 5-5, 5-6
6-1, 6-2, 6-3, 6-4, 6-5, 6-6
One of the "diagonals" shows there are six draws , which means there is no winner (1-1, 2-2, 3-3, 4-4, 5-5, 6-6).
There are 30 possibilities left, 15 of which have you as a winner (the second number is greater than the first one). Therefore, in the 15 left cases, I am the winner.
The probability of you getting a grater number than I is 15/36 = 5/12.