If you roll n dices, or roll 1 dice and multiply the result by n, they both have an equal chance of having a higher number.
When you throw a dice, it has a 50% chance of being odd and a 50% chance of being even.
Suppose I first roll n dices, and record down the final result. Now I roll only 1 dice and multiply the result by n, and record the final result.
Amazingly, the difference between the 2 final results is an odd number.
So which has a higher chance of having a final odd result, rolling n dices, or rolling 1 dice and multiply by n?
Note: This problem was inspired by a similar problem. (https://brilliant.org/problems/dicey-question/)
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There are two requirements in order for rolling a die and multiplying the result by n to yield an odd number. The number rolled on the die must be odd (50% chance), and n must be odd (we can assume there's a 50% chance of n being odd). When you multiply the two probabilities together, the there is a 25% chance of the final number being odd.
In order for rolling n dice to yield an odd number, there must be an odd amount of odd number outcomes. The probability that one roll will yield an odd number is 50%, so there is a 50% chance of there being an odd amount of odd number outcomes.