Difference in circles' areas

Geometry Level 2

Ajay learned that area of a circle is π \pi times the square of it's radius. He calculated the difference in area of the above circles as 49 π 49\pi when the difference in the radii of the above circles is given 7 7 . Is he right?

No Yes

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2 solutions

Anandmay Patel
Aug 21, 2016

According to the question,49(pi)=(pi)[R^2-r^2],where R and r are the radii of the big and small circle respectively.The equation is equivalent to:49=[R^2-r^].But,R-r=7(given),results in R+r=7.But R+r and R-r can never be simultaneously zero,as it results in either R or r = 0,which can never happen as R and r are the radii of 2 cicles.

But, a point is nothing but a circle with zero radius. It is possible. You can have R=7 and r=0.Its possible. Answer should be YES.

A Former Brilliant Member - 2 years, 7 months ago

@A Brilliant Member At that point it's just a plain old regular circle, not the figure shown in the problem.

Deva Craig - 1 year, 9 months ago
Chew-Seong Cheong
Aug 20, 2016

Since the difference in area of the big circle and small circle is 49 π 49\pi , this means that the areas of the small and big circles must be π \pi and 50 π 50 \pi respectively. Therefore, the radii of the small and big circles are 1 1 and 50 \sqrt{50} respectively and the difference is 6.071067812 \approx 6.071067812 . The answer is N o \boxed{No} .

Why specifically π \pi and 50 π 50 \pi would be the only two possible areas whose difference gives 49 π 49 \pi ? Is there an intuition that n π m π = 49 π n \pi - m \pi = 49 \pi where m m and n n are positive integers, will give the maximum value of n m \sqrt{n} - \sqrt{m} for n = 50 n=50 and m = 1 m=1 ?

Tapas Mazumdar - 4 years, 3 months ago

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