y = tan − 1 ( x ) , k ! = d x 2 1 d 2 1 y ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ x = 0 , k = ?
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For the sake of clarity, you should include this step: " tan ( y ) = x then d x d y sec 2 y = 1 or d x d y = sec 2 y 1 = tan 2 y + 1 1 = x 2 + 1 1 ". You may also try to generalize d x m d m y ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ x = 0 for positive integer m .
Great solution..thankx
Great solution; very logical and clear.
sir i think u r asking 21st derivative at x=0...
my answer was using taylor series of arctanx which makes derivatives easy.
arctan x = x − 3 x 3 + 5 x 5 + ⋯ − 1 9 x 1 9 + 2 1 x 2 1 − 2 3 x 2 3 + …
Now differentiate w.r.t x 21 times
A n s = 2 1 2 1 ! − 2 3 ⋅ 2 ! 2 3 ! x 2 + … terms with x
Now put x = 0 and u get the answer as 2 1 2 1 ! = 2 0 !
(1+x^2)y#1=1 after first differentiation. (Here, the number after the hash indicates derivative). Using Leibnitz theorem for repeated derivatives, at x=0 we can develop the recurrence formula y#(n+1)= -n(n-1)y#(n-1). Hence the value of y#21
This solution is incomplete. If you stopped right here, you would have to manually calculate y#19, y#17, y#15, and so on. You should make sure your generalized formula is as simple as possible.
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d x d y = 1 + x 2 1 = 1 − x 2 + x 4 − x 6 + . . . . . . . + x 2 0 − . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
d x 2 1 d 2 1 y = 0 + 2 0 ! + t e r m c o n s i s t i n g x . . . .
( d x 2 1 d 2 1 y ) x = 0 = 2 0 !
So k = 2 0