Differentiate it again and again (it's fun)

Calculus Level 2

y = tan 1 ( x ) , k ! = d 21 y d x 21 x = 0 , k = ? y = \tan^{-1}(x) , k! = \left. \dfrac { { d }^{ 21 }y }{ d{ x }^{ 21 } } \right|_{x=0}, \ \ \ \ \ k = \ ?


The answer is 20.

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3 solutions

Discussions for this problem are now closed

Ahmed Arup Shihab
Feb 23, 2015

d y d x = 1 1 + x 2 = 1 x 2 + x 4 x 6 + . . . . . . . + x 20 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . \frac { dy }{ dx } =\frac { 1 }{ 1+x^{ 2 } } =1-{ x }^{ 2 }+{ x }^{ 4 }-{ x }^{ 6 }+.......+{ x }^{ 20 }-.................

d 21 y d x 21 = 0 + 20 ! + t e r m c o n s i s t i n g x . . . . \frac { { d }^{ 21 }y }{ { dx }^{ 21 } } =0+20!+term\quad consisting\quad x\quad ....

( d 21 y d x 21 ) x = 0 = 20 ! { \left( \frac { { d }^{ 21 }y }{ { dx }^{ 21 } } \right) }_{ x=0 }=\quad 20!

So k = 20 k=\fbox{20}

Moderator note:

For the sake of clarity, you should include this step: " tan ( y ) = x \tan (y) = x then d y d x sec 2 y = 1 \frac {dy}{dx} \sec^2 y = 1 or d y d x = 1 sec 2 y = 1 tan 2 y + 1 = 1 x 2 + 1 \frac {dy}{dx} = \frac {1}{\sec^2 y} = \frac 1 { \tan^2 y + 1 } = \frac 1 {x^2 + 1} ". You may also try to generalize d m y d x m x = 0 \left. \dfrac { { d }^{ m }y }{ d{ x }^{ m } } \right|_{x=0} for positive integer m m .

Great solution..thankx

manish bhargao - 6 years, 3 months ago

Great solution; very logical and clear.

Jeel Shah - 6 years, 3 months ago
Incredible Mind
Feb 22, 2015

sir i think u r asking 21st derivative at x=0...

my answer was using taylor series of arctanx which makes derivatives easy.

arctan x = x x 3 3 + x 5 5 + x 19 19 + x 21 21 x 23 23 + \arctan x = x - \frac{x^{3}}{3} + \frac{x^{5}}{5} + \dots -\frac{x^{19}}{19} + \frac{x^{21}}{21} - \frac{x^{23}}{ 23} + \dots

Now differentiate w.r.t x x 21 times

A n s = 21 ! 21 23 ! x 2 23 2 ! + terms with x Ans=\frac{21!}{21} - \frac{23! x^2 }{23\cdot 2!} + \dots \quad \text{terms with x}

Now put x = 0 x=0 and u get the answer as 21 ! 21 = 20 ! \frac{21!}{21}=20!

(1+x^2)y#1=1 after first differentiation. (Here, the number after the hash indicates derivative). Using Leibnitz theorem for repeated derivatives, at x=0 we can develop the recurrence formula y#(n+1)= -n(n-1)y#(n-1). Hence the value of y#21

Moderator note:

This solution is incomplete. If you stopped right here, you would have to manually calculate y#19, y#17, y#15, and so on. You should make sure your generalized formula is as simple as possible.

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