Which of these two numbers is bigger?
9 9 9 ! , 5 0 0 9 9 9
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Good solution. Clearly presented. Thanks for explaining why we have a strict inequality.
A w e s o m e !! Did it the same way! :) +1!
Here's an alternative solution, not using AM-GM, but using geometry! If we want to show that 500^999>999!, we can pair up opposite side terms in the factorial and show that: 500 * 500>999 * 1 and 500 * 500>998 * 2 and 500 * 500>997 * 3 and so on. More generally, we want to show that 500^2>(1000-k)*k
This could be done using AM-GM, or algebra, but instead you can consider this problem: Make a rectangle with perimeter 2000 that maximizes the area. Rectangles of this form have side lengths k and 1000-k, but we know that the maximum area is achieved by a square, with side lengths 500,500. Thus for all k not equal to 500, Area=(1000-k)k<2500 and we are done.
The argument is somewhat circular. How do you prove that "the maximum area is achieved by a square" without using AM-GM or algebra (or calculus)?
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You can't really, and a simple proof could be done by algebra. I was just taking that as a common fact to provide an alternative, simple, and intuitive explanation amidst all of the somewhat challenging algebra.
Start with 9 9 9 ! ? 5 0 0 9 9 9 where ? represents the unknown inequality operator.
Take the natural log of each side: ln ( 9 9 9 ! ) ? ln ( 5 0 0 9 9 9 ) = 9 9 9 ln ( 5 0 0 )
The Stirling approximation states that for large N we can approximate: ln ( N ! ) ≈ N ln ( e N ) where e ≈ 2 . 7 is the mathematical constant
So we now have: 9 9 9 ln ( e 9 9 9 ) ? 9 9 9 ln ( 5 0 0 ) ⇒ ln ( e 9 9 9 ) ? ln ( 5 0 0 )
Eliminate the logs: e 9 9 9 ? 5 0 0
Now since e > 2 we trivially obtain: e 9 9 9 < 5 0 0
Meaning: 9 9 9 ! < 5 0 0 9 9 9
i = 1 ∏ 9 9 9 i = i = 1 ∏ 4 9 9 i ( 1 0 0 0 − i ) ⋅ 5 0 0 ≤ i = 1 ∏ 4 9 9 5 0 0 2 ⋅ 5 0 0 (AM-GM) = 5 0 0 9 9 9
it is in the form a ! , 5 0 0 a ;so We can check it for smaller numbers like 4 ! , 5 0 0 4 or 5 ! , 5 0 0 5 . So, 5 0 0 a is always bigger than a ! only if a is natural number.
You have to prove it in order for your solution to be mathematically rigorous. So far you've only shown it to be true for some small values.
EDIT:After reading Calvin Lin's comment,I came to know that this isn't true for large enough a,so that claim is false.
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But it actually true for all real number though
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Indeed,even if it is true for positive integers,a proof is required.You can't just assume that the people reading the solution know the proof already.
well it a cannot be a negative number as you cannot find the factorial of a negative number and it is not true for the number 0 as 0 ! = 5 0 0 0 .
Note that the claim is not true for large enough a . E.g. It's pretty obvious that 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 ! > 5 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 .
Nice one :)
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By AM-GM we have:
( 1 0 0 0 − x ) x ≤ 2 x + ( 1 0 0 0 − x ) ⟹ x ( 1 0 0 0 − x ) ≤ 5 0 0 2
9 9 9 ! = 9 9 9 × 9 9 8 × 9 9 7 × ⋯ × 3 × 2 × 1 = ( 9 9 9 × 1 ) × ( 9 9 8 × 2 ) × ⋯ × 5 0 0 ⋯ ≤ ( 5 0 0 2 ) 4 9 8 × 5 0 0 = 5 0 0 9 9 9
Note that equality hold in the first inequality iff x = 1 0 0 0 − x ⟹ x = 5 0 0 . This is not true in all the cases above so the inequality is strict:
9 9 9 ! < 5 0 0 9 9 9