Digits, Digits Everywhere

Which of these two numbers is bigger?

999 ! , 50 0 999 \large 999!, \space 500^{999}

50 0 999 \large 500^{999} Both have the same value 999 ! \large 999!

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5 solutions

Sam Bealing
Jun 13, 2016

By AM-GM we have:

( 1000 x ) x x + ( 1000 x ) 2 x ( 1000 x ) 50 0 2 \sqrt{(1000-x)x} \leq \dfrac{x+(1000-x)}{2} \implies x(1000-x) \leq 500^2

999 ! = 999 × 998 × 997 × × 3 × 2 × 1 = ( 999 × 1 ) × ( 998 × 2 ) × × 500 ( 50 0 2 ) 498 × 500 = 50 0 999 999!=999 \times 998 \times 997 \times \cdots \times 3 \times 2 \times 1=(999 \times 1) \times (998 \times 2) \times \cdots \times 500 \\ \cdots \leq (500^2)^{498} \times 500=500^{999}

Note that equality hold in the first inequality iff x = 1000 x x = 500 x=1000-x \implies x=500 . This is not true in all the cases above so the inequality is strict:

999 ! < 50 0 999 \color{#20A900}{\boxed{\boxed{999! <500^{999}}}}

Moderator note:

Good solution. Clearly presented. Thanks for explaining why we have a strict inequality.

A w e s o m e \color{#D61F06}{Awesome} !! Did it the same way! :) +1!

Rishu Jaar - 5 years ago
Andrew Lin
Jun 15, 2016

Here's an alternative solution, not using AM-GM, but using geometry! If we want to show that 500^999>999!, we can pair up opposite side terms in the factorial and show that: 500 * 500>999 * 1 and 500 * 500>998 * 2 and 500 * 500>997 * 3 and so on. More generally, we want to show that 500^2>(1000-k)*k

This could be done using AM-GM, or algebra, but instead you can consider this problem: Make a rectangle with perimeter 2000 that maximizes the area. Rectangles of this form have side lengths k and 1000-k, but we know that the maximum area is achieved by a square, with side lengths 500,500. Thus for all k not equal to 500, Area=(1000-k)k<2500 and we are done.

The argument is somewhat circular. How do you prove that "the maximum area is achieved by a square" without using AM-GM or algebra (or calculus)?

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 12 months ago

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You can't really, and a simple proof could be done by algebra. I was just taking that as a common fact to provide an alternative, simple, and intuitive explanation amidst all of the somewhat challenging algebra.

Andrew Lin - 4 years, 12 months ago
Adrian Peasey
Jul 10, 2016

Start with 999 ! ? 50 0 999 999!\;\boxed{?}\; 500^{999} where ? \boxed{?} represents the unknown inequality operator.

Take the natural log of each side: ln ( 999 ! ) ? ln ( 50 0 999 ) = 999 ln ( 500 ) \ln(999!)\;\boxed{?}\;\ln(500^{999})=999\ln(500)

The Stirling approximation states that for large N N we can approximate: ln ( N ! ) N ln ( N e ) \ln(N!)\approx N\ln(\frac{N}{e}) where e 2.7 e\approx2.7 is the mathematical constant

So we now have: 999 ln ( 999 e ) ? 999 ln ( 500 ) ln ( 999 e ) ? ln ( 500 ) 999\ln(\frac{999}{e})\;\boxed{?}\;999\ln(500)\Rightarrow\ln(\frac{999}{e})\;\boxed{?}\;\ln(500)

Eliminate the logs: 999 e ? 500 \frac{999}{e}\;\boxed{?}\; 500

Now since e > 2 e>2 we trivially obtain: 999 e < 500 \frac{999}{e}<500

Meaning: 999 ! < 50 0 999 \boxed{999!< 500^{999}}

i = 1 999 i = i = 1 499 i ( 1000 i ) 500 i = 1 499 50 0 2 500 (AM-GM) = 50 0 999 \prod_{i=1}^{999}i=\prod_{i=1}^{499}i(1000-i)\cdot500\leq\prod_{i=1}^{499}500^2\cdot500\mbox{ (AM-GM)}=500^{999}

Ayush G Rai
Jun 13, 2016

it is in the form a ! , 50 0 a a!,500^a ;so We can check it for smaller numbers like 4 ! , 50 0 4 4!,500^4 or 5 ! , 50 0 5 . 5!,500^5. So, 50 0 a 500^a is always bigger than a ! a! only if a is natural number.

You have to prove it in order for your solution to be mathematically rigorous. So far you've only shown it to be true for some small values.

EDIT:After reading Calvin Lin's comment,I came to know that this isn't true for large enough a,so that claim is false.

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 4 years, 12 months ago

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But it actually true for all real number though

Jason Chrysoprase - 4 years, 12 months ago

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Indeed,even if it is true for positive integers,a proof is required.You can't just assume that the people reading the solution know the proof already.

Abdur Rehman Zahid - 4 years, 12 months ago

well it a cannot be a negative number as you cannot find the factorial of a negative number and it is not true for the number 0 0 as 0 ! = 50 0 0 . 0!=500^0.

Ayush G Rai - 4 years, 12 months ago

Note that the claim is not true for large enough a a . E.g. It's pretty obvious that 1000000000 ! > 50 0 1000000000 1000000000! > 500^{1000000000} .

Calvin Lin Staff - 4 years, 12 months ago

Nice one :)

Jason Chrysoprase - 5 years ago

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