Digits Modulo 1000

Compute the last 3 digits of 17 1 172 171^{172} .

Clarification: If you think that the last 3 digits are 012 012 , you may type in either 012 012 or 12 12 .


The answer is 641.

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4 solutions

Calvin Lin Staff
May 13, 2014

From the binomial expansion, we have 1 1 7 = ( 10 + 1 ) 7 2100 + 70 + 1 = 171 ( m o d 1000 ) 11^7 = (10+1)^7 \equiv 2100+70+1 = 171 \pmod{1000} . Hence, 17 1 172 ( 1 1 7 ) 172 1 1 1204 ( m o d 1000 ) 171^{172} \equiv (11^7)^{172} \equiv 11^{1204} \pmod{1000} . Since ϕ ( 1000 ) = 1000 ( 1 1 5 ) ( 1 1 2 ) = 400 \phi(1000) = 1000\left(1-\frac{1}{5}\right)\left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right)= 400 , we use Euler's Theorem to obtain 1 1 1204 1 1 4 14641 641 ( m o d 1000 ) 11^{1204} \equiv 11^4 \equiv 14641 \equiv 641 \pmod{1000} .

Note: There are other ways to arrive at the answer, like attempting to multiply it out.

Alpha Beta
May 20, 2014

Hello calvin i also had a solution

171^172 = 57^172 x 3^172 so 57^172 has 001 as its last digits.....

so we have to find last three digits of 3^172

3^8 === 561(mod1000) 3^168 === 561^21(mod 1000) 3^172 ===561^21 x 81

So by using Binomial Theorem, expanding 561^21,, and by checking, its last 3 digits came to be 761.As all the starting terms would have last 3 digits as 000,we have to see its last 4 terms,and adding there last 3 digits we get 761 so 761 x 81 = 61641 Hence last 3 digits will be 641..........Calvin have a look at my solution,is it correct or any defect is there......

Mustafa Warsi
May 20, 2014

Hmm. I have a solution, but it's a lot more straight-forward than the other ones put up. It's not as elegant as I hoped it'd be, and involves a lot of hacking and numerical work, but I'll put it up, while I look for a quicker one, in time. To simulate the exam conditions, I did not use a Calculator, and solved it in about 12 minutes, which is perhaps too much for a 1 hour paper.

Now, we need to find 171^172 mod 1000.

I split 1000 into it's co-prime factors, 125 and 8 and found those moduli individually.

171^172 mod 8 === 3^172 mod 8

And by Euler's theorem, phi (8) = 4, so,

3^172 mod 8 === 3^ (172 mod 4) mod 8 === 3^ 0 mod 8 === 1 So, 171^172 mod 8 === 1

Now,

171^172 mod 125 === 46^172 mod 125

And by Euler's Theorem, phi (125) = 100, so,

46^172 === 46^72 mod 125===(2^72) (23^72)

Here, the biggest problem we have are the enormous exponents. We've got to make them more tractable. So,

Now, 2^72 === (2^9)^8 === 512^8 === 12^8 mod 125 12^8=== 144^4 mod 125 === 19^4 ===361^2 mod 125 === (-14)^2 mod 125 === 196 === 71 mod 125

So, 2^ 72 === 71 mod 125

And, 23^72 === (529)^36 === 29^36

Now, 29^3 ===24389 ==== 14 mod 125, so,

29^36 ===14^12 mod 125 === (14^3)^4=== 2744^4===(-6)^4 mod 125 (-6)^4 ===1296 === 46 mod 125

So, 2^72(23^72) === 71(46) mod 125 And, 71(46) === 16 mod 125

So, we have 171^172 === 16 mod 125 and, 171^172 === 1 mod 8

From here, we can deduce that, 171^172 === either 16 or 141 or 266 or... 641 satisfies both equations, so we can say, that, 171^172=== 641.

Comments & replies:

Calvin:

Yes, this is a way to use Euler's theorem. It can't be applied directly since ϕ ( 1000 ) = 400 \phi(1000)=400 which isn't useful. However, breaking it up into it's prime modulus (Chinese Remainder Theorem) allows us to then reduce the large powers.

Note that students were not supposed to finish the entire test in an hour (and were warned). Their goal was to focus on questions that they can do (but who's to blame them for being distracted by all these wonderful problems).


Mustafa Warsi:

Hahaha, indeed.

Also, instead of splitting 46 into 2x23, I realised it's significantly quicker to simply compute the moduli with 46^72, itself. It involves maybe 10 fewer calculations. I avoided this initially, in order to deal with smaller numbers, but I see, that the numbers get pretty big, regardless.

Alas, if I had just gone ahead with the calculations, I might've not spent the same amount of time looking for a more expedient way of solving the question and failing.


Calvin:

Yes, it wasn't completely ideal, because students also had to choose between a way they knew would work (like determining the actual value of 17 1 172 171^{172} , or finding out a better way. This problem allows for numerous approaches, which is why I used it.

There is a 'one line' Euler's Theorem proof.

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years ago

[Calvin - Edits have been added in to reflect Sreejato's latter comments.]

To compute the last three digits of a number is equivalent to find its value modulo 1000.

Now, 171^172= (100+71) ^172= 100^172 + (172C1) (100^171) (71^1) + … + (172C170) (100^2) (71^170) + (172C171) (100) (71^171) + 71^172

Now, 100^2= 10000, and 1000 divides 100^2. So, if k>=2, 1000 divides 100^k.

Thus, 1000 divides (100+71) ^172 + (172C1) (100^171) (71^1) + … + (172C170) (100^2) (71^170).

This implies that 100^172 + (172C1) (100^171) (71^1) + … + (172C170) (100^2) (71^170) + (172C171) (100) (71^171) + 71^172== (172C171) (100) (71^171) + 71^172 (mod 1000)

Now, 172C171= 172! /171!1!= 172 So, 171^172==172 100 71^171 + 71^172 == 71^171(17200+71) == 71^171 * 17271 == 271 * 71^171(mod 1000)

Now, 70^3= 343000, and 1000 divides 70^3. So it can be concluded that if k>=3, 1000 divides 70^k.

Therefore 1000 divides 70^171+(171C1) (70^169) +… + (171C168) 70^3.

This implies that 71^171 == 14535 * (-100) + 171*70+1== -1441529 == 471 (mod 1000)

So, 271* 71^171 == 271*471== 127641 == 641 (mod 1000)

So, the last three digits are 641.

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