Dilemma of Integrals

Calculus Level 3

Which of the following statements regarding the functions f ( x ) , g ( x ) f(x),g(x) for all real values x x are not true?

  1. If a b f ( x ) d x = a b g ( x ) d x \displaystyle\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx=\displaystyle\int_{a}^{b}g(x)dx and f ( b ) = g ( b ) , f ( a ) = g ( a ) f(b)=g(b), f(a)=g(a) , then f ( x ) g ( x ) f(x)\equiv g(x) .
  2. If a b f ( x ) d x a b g ( x ) d x \displaystyle\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx\geq \displaystyle\int_{a}^{b}g(x)dx , then f ( b ) g ( b ) f(b)\geq g(b) and f ( a ) g ( a ) f(a)\geq g(a) .
  3. 0 b f ( x ) d x = a 0 f ( x ) d x \displaystyle\int_{0}^{b}f(x)dx=\displaystyle\int_{a}^{0}f(x)dx and b + a = 0 b+a=0 if and only if f ( x ) f(x) is an even function.
  4. 0 b g ( x ) d x = 0 a g ( x ) d x \displaystyle\int_{0}^{b}g(x)dx=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{a}g(x)dx and b a = 0 b-a=0 if and only if g ( x ) g(x) is an odd function.

You can try more of my fundamental problems here .

1,2,3,4 only 1,2,4 only 1,2,3 only 2,3,4 only

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2 solutions

Jc 506881
Jan 29, 2018

Counterexamples to each of the statements above can obtained using the same idea: Just because two regions have the same area doesn't mean they have the same shape.

Donglin Loo
Jan 30, 2018

We shall provide counter-examples to prove the statements wrong.

In Statement 1,

Let f ( x ) = sin x , g ( x ) = cos x f(x)=\sin x, g(x)=\cos x

0 2 π s i n x d x = 0 , 0 2 π c o s x d x = 0 \displaystyle\int_{0}^{2 \pi}sinxdx=0,\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2 \pi}cosxdx=0

0 2 π f ( x ) d x = 0 2 π g ( x ) d x = 0 \displaystyle\int_{0}^{2 \pi}f(x)dx=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{2 \pi}g(x)dx=0

f ( x ) g ( x ) f(x)\neq g(x)

So, Statement 1 is false.


In Statement 2,

Let f ( x ) = sin x , g ( x ) = cos x f(x)=\sin x, g(x)=\cos x

0 π 2 s i n x d x = 0 π 2 c o s x d x \displaystyle\int_{0}^{\cfrac{\pi}{2}}sinxdx=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\cfrac{\pi}{2}}cosxdx

f ( 0 ) = 0 , g ( 0 ) = 1 f(0)=0, g(0)=1 f ( 0 ) < g ( 0 ) \Rightarrow f(0)<g(0)

So, Statement 2 is false.


In Statement 3 and Statement 4,

We shall suppose that a = b = 0 a=b=0

For all real-valued functions p ( x ) p(x) , 0 0 p ( x ) d x = 0 \displaystyle\int_{0}^{0}p(x)dx=0 , regardless of p ( x ) p(x) is even, odd or neither.

So, Statement 3 and Statement 4 are false.


Note: \textbf{Note:} : The term A if and only if B \textbf{A if and only if B} means that if A \textbf{A} , then B \textbf{B} and also if B \textbf{B} , then A \textbf{A} . It must work in both ways.

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