How many ordered pairs of real numbers ( a , b ) satisfy
( 1 + a + b ) 2 = 3 ( 1 + a 2 + b 2 ) ?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
By C - S Inequality on the sets ( a , b , 1 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 1 ) , we have
( a 2 + b 2 + 1 ) ( 1 + 1 + 1 ) ≥ ( a + b + 1 ) 2
Equality holds when a = b = 1 .
Therefore our only solution is ( a = b = 1 )
Now that's some innovative thinking. But what made you think about applying C-S inequality in this problem?
Log in to reply
It was exactly in the form.Square terms on one side , the 3 , whole square in one side.
Let's expand the above equation out to obtain:
( a + b ) 2 + 2 ( a + b ) + 1 = 3 + 3 a 2 + 3 b 2 ;
or a 2 + b 2 + 2 a b + 2 a + 2 b + 1 = 3 + 3 a 2 + 3 b 2 ;
or 0 = 2 a 2 + 2 b 2 − 2 a − 2 b − 2 a b + 2 ;
or 0 = a 2 − ( b + 1 ) a + ( b 2 − b + 1 ) ;
The corresponding roots are:
a = 2 ( b + 1 ) ± ( b + 1 ) 2 − 4 ( 1 ) ( b 2 − b + 1 ) = 2 ( b + 1 ) ± − 3 b 2 + 6 b − 3 = 2 ( b + 1 ) ± − 3 ( b − 1 ) 2 = 2 ( b + 1 ) ± ( b − 1 ) − 3
which a ∈ R holds true iff b = 1 ⇒ a = 1 . Hence ( a , b ) = ( 1 , 1 ) is the only real pair allowed.
Apply cauchy-schwarz inequality to the LHS.We will observe that RHS obtained will be the RHS given in the question.Now apply equality condition of cauchy-schwarz inequality to get a=b=1.
If we replace a by x and b by y , and expanding this, we have x 2 + y 2 − x y − x − y + 1 = 0 This is an equation for an ellipse. Also this satisfies the determinant which means that it is a point ellipse. Thus there is only 1 solution.
What is this method called? Is there a relevant wiki on it?
See this wikipedia article
Relevant wiki: Factorization of Polynomials
It is very simple,
If we simplify the equation we get
2 a 2 + 2 b 2 + 2 a b + 2 − 2 a − 2 b = 0
So ( a − b ) 2 + ( a − 1 ) 2 + ( b + 1 ) 2 = 0
Squares are zero and a and b are real numbers
Hence a=b, a+1 and b=1
So a = b = 1 is the only solution
@Prithwish Roy Nice question. Note that because you are asking for real solutions, it's an algebra question. Number theory (and diophantine equations) deals with integer (or rational) solutions. (That's a slight simplification, but a good enough first approximation.)
Alright Calvin, and MD zuhair correctly done, though you missed out the ab term.
Log in to reply
Oh yes, Correct.
@Prithwish Roy are you from Kolkata? I am from Kolkata
Log in to reply
No I am from durgapur, though I visit Kolkata often enough
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
( 1 + a + b ) 2 1 + a 2 + b 2 + 2 a + 2 a b + 2 b 2 a 2 + 2 b 2 − 2 a b − 2 a − 2 b + 2 a 2 − 2 a b + b 2 + a 2 − 2 a + 1 + b 2 − 2 b + 1 ( a − b ) 2 + ( a − 1 ) 2 + ( b − 1 ) 2 = 3 ( 1 + a 2 + b 2 ) = 3 + 3 a 2 + 3 b 2 = 0 = 0 = 0
We note that the LHS is ≥ 0 and is equal to the RHS only when a = b = 1 . Therefore, there is exactly one solution pair ( a , b ) = ( 1 , 1 ) .